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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 32

Question 310

A VPN operator reviews a site-to-site IPsec deployment. Which distinction between IKE and ESP is technically correct?

  1. IKE encrypts all data packets directly after the tunnel is established, with no IPsec data-plane protocol.
  2. ESP replaces the need to validate the VPN peer identity.
  3. IKE negotiates security associations and keys; ESP protects user IP traffic according to the negotiated policy.
  4. Use ESP security associations to negotiate the peer certificate and phase-one key exchange, leaving IKE only for user payload encryption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

IKE coordinates authenticated negotiation and keying, while ESP provides packet confidentiality and/or integrity for protected data traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

IKE is the control/keying exchange. Actual protected payload traffic is carried under ESP security associations.

B:

Peer authentication belongs to secure tunnel establishment; ESP packet protection does not make peer-authentication policy optional.

D:

This reverses the two functions: IKE handles authenticated peer negotiation and keying; ESP applies the negotiated packet protection to user data.

Question 311

A branch router should route ONLY traffic to 198.51.100.77 through next hop 192.0.2.2, while other hosts on 198.51.100.0/24 use another path. Without PBR, what route is most specific?

  1. Configure a route to 198.51.0.0/16 through 192.0.2.2.
  2. Install an IPv4 static host route 198.51.100.77/32 through 192.0.2.2.
  3. Install 198.51.100.0/24 through 192.0.2.2.
  4. Change the router default gateway to 192.0.2.2.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A /32 matches exactly the one destination; the remaining /24 destinations continue matching their broader routing entries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A /16 is even less specific and cannot isolate the chosen host from neighboring networks.

C:

That /24 diverts all destinations in the subnet, not the single host specified in the requirement.

D:

A default route impacts unmatched destinations broadly and is less targeted than the requested host route.

Question 312

A large office has 25 access points on 2.4 GHz, all using channel 6 and high transmit power. Users see high retries while signal strength appears strong. Which RF change addresses likely co-channel contention?

  1. Plan reuse of nonoverlapping 2.4-GHz channels and right-size AP power/cell overlap.
  2. Increase all AP transmit power to maximum to overpower neighboring cells.
  3. Disable all client authentication to shorten association time.
  4. Add a second SSID on the same AP radios and require clients to select it, without changing any overlapping channel assignments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Overlapping high-power cells on one shared channel contend for airtime; channel planning and power tuning can improve medium access.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Higher power can expand interference and contention rather than increase the shared channel’s airtime capacity.

C:

Authentication policy is not the cause of adjacent APs contending on one RF channel and weakens security.

D:

A separate SSID may segregate users but shares the same congested RF channel and contention domain, so it does not recover lost airtime.

Question 313

A switch provides PoE to eight wireless APs. Each AP can require 25 W at its peak, but the switch has a 150 W total PoE budget. What should the installer conclude?

  1. A 150 W budget is enough because each AP uses a separate Ethernet port.
  2. PoE power budget is based solely on bandwidth speed, not device wattage.
  3. The remaining 50 W can be supplied through unused uplink bandwidth.
  4. Eight APs could require 200 W, so the available PoE budget is insufficient at peak load.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

25 W times eight is 200 W, exceeding the 150 W power budget. Verify delivered power classes and plan capacity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Separate ports do not create a separate aggregate power budget; all eight draw from switch PoE resources.

B:

PoE allocation depends on electrical demand and switch capabilities, separate from Ethernet throughput.

C:

Network bandwidth cannot satisfy an electrical power shortage; increase PoE capacity or reduce actual demand.

Question 314

An IOS router has a correct NAT overload access list and an outside interface. Hosts on the LAN have correct default gateways, but there are no translations. The LAN router interface lacks an ip nat inside designation. What fixes the immediate configuration error?

  1. Raise the interface speed on the WAN link.
  2. Remove the overload statement from the NAT rule.
  3. Mark the LAN-facing routed interface as ip nat inside.
  4. Mark the WAN interface as ip nat inside as well.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

NAT needs inside/outside role classification so matching outbound sessions can be translated according to the configured rule.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Link speed does not create NAT role association; an otherwise working route can still lack translations.

B:

Removing PAT changes translation behavior but cannot compensate for an unmarked LAN interface.

D:

Both sides being inside removes the expected inside-to-outside direction and does not repair role classification.

Question 315

A network team compares nightly controller running configurations against version-controlled approved templates and flags unauthorized changes. Which automation benefit is demonstrated?

  1. Reducing the Ethernet frame check sequence size.
  2. Configuration compliance drift detection against a desired state.
  3. Dynamic packet load balancing across Ethernet links.
  4. Deploy the approved template once and suppress future configuration comparisons so operators do not see repeated alerts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Automated comparison finds departures from approved device configurations before they spread or complicate incident investigation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A compliance comparison cannot modify Layer 2 frame integrity checks or wire formats.

C:

Comparing configuration snapshots does not influence real-time packet forwarding or link selection.

D:

A one-time push may initially converge devices, but it cannot identify unauthorized drift that appears after deployment or alert the team about exceptions.

Question 316

R1 has routes 10.8.0.0/16 to R2 and 10.8.9.0/24 to R3. A packet is addressed to 10.8.9.50. Which route wins?

  1. The 10.8.9.0/24 entry toward R3, by longest-prefix match.
  2. The /16 route because its network includes more host addresses.
  3. Whichever route has the smaller physical interface number.
  4. The route entered into configuration most recently.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both entries include the destination but /24 matches more high-order address bits than /16; prefix specificity comes before AD comparisons.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A larger address range is less specific, not preferred when a more-specific matching route is installed.

C:

Interfaces do not govern longest-prefix comparison; the destination address selects the most-specific installed route.

D:

Entry creation time is not the routing-table forwarding selection rule when both prefixes match.

Question 317

A secured access port is configured with violation mode restrict instead of protect. What added operational behavior should the team expect on an unauthorized source MAC?

  1. The interface enters err-disabled state whenever an unknown MAC appears.
  2. Unauthorized frames are transparently forwarded but logged.
  3. The port learns an unlimited number of additional secure MAC addresses.
  4. Traffic is dropped and the device can count/report the security violation without shutting the port.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Restrict discards violating frames while allowing violation counters and configured notifications, unlike silent protect or errdisable shutdown.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That is the shutdown mode behavior, not the normal restrict action.

B:

Restrict mode is designed to block violating frames, not forward them.

C:

A configured secure MAC maximum remains enforced; restrict does not raise that limit.

Question 318

A hypervisor host has 32 GiB RAM and three VMs each configured for 12 GiB reserved memory. What must the designer verify before promising all three guests dedicated allocations?

  1. The host operating system needs no memory once VMs boot.
  2. Memory oversubscription always guarantees every reserved byte at peak simultaneously.
  3. 36 GiB of reservations exceeds 32 GiB available before host overhead.
  4. Guest VM memory reservations use Ethernet port-channel capacity, not RAM.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Three 12-GiB reservations total 36 GiB, so the physical host cannot guarantee them all without capacity changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A hypervisor and host services still require resources in addition to guest reservations.

B:

Oversubscription may be possible under policies but cannot guarantee dedicated physical reservation above installed capacity.

D:

Memory reservations consume compute host capacity rather than switch link bandwidth.

Question 319

A routed switch has interface Vlan30 configured with 10.30.0.1/24 and no shutdown. The SVI remains down/down and all access ports in VLAN 30 are disconnected. What should be checked?

  1. Force interface Vlan30 up by configuring a second IP address on the down/down SVI without bringing up any VLAN 30 member.
  2. Ensure VLAN 30 exists and at least one eligible member or forwarding trunk is up in VLAN 30.
  3. Advertise VLAN 30 in OSPF before confirming the SVI has an active Layer 2 member.
  4. Change the SVI default gateway to 0.0.0.0.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Many IOS switches require an active Layer 2 forwarding member for SVI line protocol; admin no-shutdown alone is insufficient.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Secondary IP configuration does not satisfy SVI autostate when there is no active Layer 2 path in the relevant VLAN.

C:

Routing advertisement cannot bring a down VLAN interface into the forwarding state; first correct the L2 membership or trunk eligibility.

D:

An SVI is itself the gateway; replacing its IP with a default value does not solve autostate.

Question 320

R1’s next-hop Ethernet neighbor is on 192.0.2.0/24, while the ultimate packet destination is 10.50.0.9. What information does R1 use to build the outgoing Ethernet frame?

  1. The destination MAC of the resolved next-hop IP, not the remote final host MAC.
  2. The MAC address of the remote 10.50.0.9 host learned through global ARP.
  3. The default gateway MAC of the source workstation, regardless of next hop.
  4. An all-ones broadcast destination MAC for every routed unicast packet.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

IP routing chooses an adjacent next hop, and ARP resolves that next hop’s local link-layer address for the outgoing Ethernet frame.

Incorrect Answers

B:

ARP is link-local; routers do not normally discover remote subnet host MACs across routed hops.

C:

R1 builds a new link-layer frame for its own outgoing segment using its resolved neighboring device.

D:

The router forwards ordinary unicast IP using unicast next-hop MAC resolution, not Ethernet broadcast per packet.


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