CompTIA 220-1101 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

A technician needs to upgrade the memory in a desktop computer by installing additional RAM. Considering common hardware standards and compatibility, which type of RAM is the MOST appropriate for this desktop upgrade?

A. SODIMM
B. DDR3
C. ECC
D. VRAM

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When a technician upgrades RAM in a desktop computer, it is crucial to select a memory type compatible with the system's motherboard and intended use. Let’s analyze each option to determine why DDR3 is the most suitable choice.

A. SODIMM (Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module) is primarily used in laptops and small-form-factor PCs due to its compact size. While some mini or compact desktops might use SODIMM, most full-sized desktops utilize standard DIMMs. Therefore, SODIMM is generally not the preferred memory type for typical desktop upgrades.

B. DDR3 (Double Data Rate 3) RAM has been the standard for desktop systems manufactured roughly between 2007 and the mid-2010s. It offers a balance of performance and affordability, making it common in many consumer desktops and mid-range PCs. Given that many legacy or slightly older desktop computers use DDR3, it’s the most likely memory type to be installed during a routine upgrade.

C. ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is designed to detect and fix internal data corruption, thus offering improved reliability. However, ECC RAM is mostly found in servers or professional workstations where data integrity is paramount. Since ECC is not commonly supported or necessary in consumer-grade desktops, it is unlikely to be used in a typical desktop memory upgrade.

D. VRAM (Video RAM) is dedicated memory used exclusively by graphics cards to process and store image data for displays. VRAM is not a substitute for system RAM and is irrelevant when upgrading desktop system memory.

In summary, DDR3 RAM (Option B) is the most probable and practical choice for expanding memory in a desktop computer. It aligns with common desktop configurations, providing good compatibility and performance. Other options like SODIMM or ECC serve specific niches or form factors, and VRAM serves a completely different function related to graphics rather than general system memory.

Question 2:

A technician observes that a laser printer is producing printed pages with vertical streaks. After examining the printer, which internal component is MOST likely responsible for causing these vertical lines?

A. Roller
B. Drum
C. Transfer belt
D. Ribbon

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Vertical streaks on printed pages from a laser printer often indicate a problem with the components that handle toner application and transfer. Understanding the printer’s internals helps identify the root cause.

A. Roller: Rollers in laser printers primarily feed paper through the device and maintain proper paper movement. While a damaged or dirty roller might cause paper jams or skewed feeding, it typically does not create vertical streaks on the printouts. Therefore, the roller is unlikely to be the source of this issue.

B. Drum: The drum is a critical photosensitive cylinder responsible for transferring toner onto the paper in the correct pattern. Any damage, dirt, or toner buildup on the drum’s surface can cause toner to be unevenly applied, resulting in vertical streaks, smudges, or faded lines. Since the drum directly controls toner placement, defects here are the most common cause of vertical print streaks.

C. Transfer belt: The transfer belt is used in some color laser printers to move toner from the drum to the paper. While contamination or damage on the transfer belt can cause color misalignment or streaks, vertical streaks are more typically linked to drum issues in monochrome or general laser printing. The transfer belt is less commonly the source of vertical lines than the drum.

D. Ribbon: Ribbons are components used in dot matrix and some inkjet printers to apply ink onto paper. Laser printers do not use ribbons; instead, they use toner powder. Hence, the ribbon does not apply to this situation and cannot cause vertical streaks in a laser printer.

Conclusively, the drum (Option B) is the component most likely causing vertical streaks in a laser printer. Cleaning or replacing the drum is typically the appropriate corrective action to restore print quality. Other parts like rollers and transfer belts affect paper handling and color alignment but are less commonly the cause of vertical streaks.

Question 3:

A user is attempting to play a DVD through a projector. While the audio plays fine, the projector shows an error message saying:

What is the most probable cause of this error?

A. The HDMI cable cannot transmit the DVD signal to the projector.
B. The user should switch to a different cable type, such as DisplayPort.
C. The projector does not support the required HDCP copy protection protocol.
D. The projector settings need to be adjusted to allow copy-protected content.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The error message “HDMI Blocked due to Copy Protection” points to an issue involving digital rights management protocols when transmitting protected content over HDMI. This is usually tied to HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection), a protocol designed to prevent unauthorized copying of digital media. HDCP works by encrypting the digital content between the source device (like a DVD player) and the display device (such as a projector). Both devices must support HDCP and successfully complete a handshake process for the video signal to be displayed.

If the projector lacks HDCP support, it cannot complete this handshake, so the DVD player will block the video signal to prevent unauthorized copying, resulting in the displayed error. This is why Option C is correct: the absence of HDCP support on the projector causes the error.

Other options are less likely to be the cause:

  • Option A is incorrect because HDMI can carry both video and audio signals properly; the issue is not with the physical transmission but the copy protection.

  • Option B is invalid because switching to DisplayPort won’t help if the problem is HDCP compliance, which is required by both HDMI and DisplayPort standards.

  • Option D is wrong since there is no projector setting to enable or disable copy protection; the problem lies in hardware compatibility, not software settings.

To fix this, the user should verify that the projector supports HDCP. If not, replacing the projector with an HDCP-compliant model or using an HDCP-compliant splitter could resolve the issue.

Question 4:

A technician is setting up a non-carrier-grade wireless backhaul and identifies a channel with almost no RF interference during spectral analysis. However, the technician cannot select this clean channel for use.

What is the most likely reason the technician cannot use this channel?

A. The channel is reserved exclusively for licensed use.
B. The channel selection feature is malfunctioning and requires manufacturer support.
C. The channel requires unlocking by the device vendor.
D. The device firmware needs updating to enable access to this channel.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In wireless communication, certain frequency channels are designated as licensed bands, regulated and reserved for specific users like telecom operators or broadcasters. These licensed bands require regulatory approval or licenses for operation and are protected to prevent unauthorized access. When a technician finds a clean channel with minimal interference that cannot be selected, it often means the channel is part of a licensed spectrum that the device is not authorized to use.

Option A correctly identifies this: the channel is reserved for licensed users, so the device’s firmware or hardware will block its selection to comply with legal regulations. Unauthorized use of licensed channels could cause interference with critical services and result in penalties.

The other options are less plausible:

  • Option B suggests a hardware defect, which is unlikely since the channel is simply unavailable due to regulation.

  • Option C implies vendor-controlled unlocking, which is not common for regulatory restrictions—access is typically blocked by design.

  • Option D implies a firmware update might help, but such updates cannot override regulatory limitations. Firmware controls device functions but cannot authorize use of restricted spectrum bands.

In this situation, the technician must select an unlicensed channel to avoid legal and operational issues. Using licensed channels requires proper authorization and specialized equipment designed for those bands.

Question 5:

A user reports that all prints from their laser printer display double images. The technician finds the printer’s maintenance kit hasn’t been replaced for over a year.

Which printer component is most likely causing the double imaging problem?

A. Separation pad
B. Transfer roller
C. Ink cartridge
D. Fuser

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Understanding laser printer operation helps identify why the fuser is the most likely cause of double images. In a laser printer, toner is applied to the paper and then permanently fused using heat and pressure. The fuser unit is responsible for this bonding process. When a fuser becomes worn or damaged due to extended use without replacement, it can fail to properly bond toner, causing ghosting or double images on printouts.

Let’s examine why other components are less likely causes:

  • The separation pad’s role is to separate sheets of paper to prevent multiple feeds. If it fails, issues like paper jams occur, but it wouldn’t cause double images.

  • The transfer roller moves toner from the drum to the paper. Its failure leads to uneven or smudged toner application, but double images are not typical.

  • The ink cartridge doesn’t apply here, as laser printers use toner cartridges, and toner problems tend to cause fading or spots, not double images.

A worn fuser (Option D) causes toner to be inadequately bonded and sometimes partially re-deposited on the page, creating a faint duplicate image offset from the original print. Since the maintenance kit—including the fuser—has not been replaced for over a year, it’s very likely the fuser’s deteriorated condition is causing the problem.

Replacing the maintenance kit, particularly the fuser, will restore proper toner bonding and eliminate double images, ensuring high-quality printouts.

Question 6:

A technician is setting up a workstation to host virtual machines (VMs). After installing the virtualization software, the technician finds that no VMs can be created. 

What step should the technician take to resolve this and enable VM creation?

A. Disable the BIOS password
B. Enable TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
C. Enable multithreading
D. Enable Fast Startup

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The core problem the technician faces is the inability to create virtual machines on a workstation that has virtualization software installed. A critical factor for running VMs effectively is that certain CPU features must be enabled in the system BIOS or UEFI settings. One essential feature is multithreading, which allows a CPU to handle multiple threads of execution within each core, improving overall processing efficiency.

Multithreading (sometimes called Intel Hyper-Threading or AMD Simultaneous Multi-Threading) enables the processor to run parallel threads, which virtualization software leverages to allocate resources to different VMs. Without multithreading enabled, the processor cannot efficiently divide its cores' capacity, leading to the inability to start or create VMs.

Why C is the best choice: Enabling multithreading in the BIOS ensures that the CPU can provide the necessary parallel processing power to support multiple VMs. This is a prerequisite for virtualization environments like VMware, Hyper-V, or VirtualBox to function correctly.

Why the other options are incorrect:

  • A (Disable BIOS password): The BIOS password controls access security, but it does not influence the hardware virtualization capabilities.

  • B (Enable TPM): TPM is a security module for hardware-based encryption and authentication, unrelated to VM creation or virtualization performance.

  • D (Enable Fast Startup): This Windows feature speeds up boot times by using hibernation techniques and does not affect virtualization or the creation of virtual machines.

To fix the issue, the technician should restart the machine, enter the BIOS/UEFI setup, and ensure that multithreading or hyper-threading is enabled. Once activated, the system can efficiently manage multiple threads per core, allowing the virtualization software to create and run VMs properly.

Question 7:

A technician is troubleshooting a user’s computer that lacks network connectivity. Upon checking, the technician finds the user’s port on the patch panel is not labeled, making it difficult to identify the correct connection. 

Which tool should the technician use to locate the correct port on the patch panel?

A. Network tap
B. Punchdown tool
C. Toner probe
D. Crimper

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The issue here is that the technician needs to identify which specific port on the patch panel corresponds to the user’s network cable, but since the ports aren’t labeled, it’s challenging to trace the connection manually. The ideal tool for this situation is a toner probe.

A toner probe consists of two parts: a tone generator (toner) and a probe. The technician attaches the tone generator to one end of the cable (for example, at the user’s workstation), which sends an electrical signal through the wire. The probe then detects this signal at the other end—in this case, along the patch panel. By following the tone, the technician can accurately identify the correct port connected to the user’s cable.

Why C is the best choice: The toner probe is specifically designed for tracing and identifying cables in complex wiring setups, especially when documentation or labeling is missing or outdated. This tool saves time and reduces errors by providing an audible or visual cue to locate the correct cable path.

Why the other options are not suitable:

  • A (Network tap): This device is used for passive monitoring of network traffic and does not assist in cable identification.

  • B (Punchdown tool): This tool is for terminating cables into patch panels or wall jacks, not for tracing cables.

  • D (Crimper): A crimper is used to attach connectors to cables but cannot trace or identify cables.

In summary, to resolve the issue of identifying unlabeled ports on a patch panel, the technician should use a toner probe to trace the cable from the user’s device to the correct port. This ensures accurate network troubleshooting and restores connectivity efficiently.

Question 8:

A technician is setting up a new workstation and needs to install an SSD to improve system performance. Which interface type will most likely provide the fastest data transfer speeds for the SSD?

A. SATA III
B. NVMe over PCIe
C. USB 3.0
D. IDE

Answer: B

Explanation:

When installing an SSD for improved system performance, the interface type plays a critical role in determining the speed at which data can be read from or written to the drive. Among the options, NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) over PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) offers the fastest data transfer rates.

SATA III (option A) is a traditional interface for connecting storage devices and supports a maximum data transfer rate of up to 6 Gbps (around 600 MB/s). While SATA SSDs provide a significant performance boost over mechanical hard drives, they are limited by the SATA interface's bandwidth ceiling.

NVMe over PCIe (option B) leverages the PCIe bus, which supports much higher bandwidth. NVMe is designed specifically for SSDs to reduce latency and increase throughput by communicating directly with the system’s CPU via PCIe lanes. This results in significantly faster read/write speeds, often exceeding several GB/s, depending on the PCIe generation and number of lanes. This makes NVMe SSDs the best choice for high-performance needs.

USB 3.0 (option C) is primarily used for external storage devices. It can deliver speeds up to 5 Gbps, but external SSDs connected via USB cannot match the speed and latency of internal NVMe drives connected via PCIe.

IDE (option D) is an outdated interface used mostly in older systems, offering very low data transfer speeds by modern standards, and is not suitable for SSDs or performance-driven systems.

In summary, NVMe over PCIe SSDs provide the best performance due to their higher throughput and lower latency. SATA SSDs are a good mid-tier option but are bottlenecked by SATA limitations. USB 3.0 is convenient for external drives but slower, and IDE is obsolete. For modern workstation setups focused on maximizing speed, option B is the correct choice.

Question 9:

During the troubleshooting of a printer issue, a technician notices that the printer is printing faded pages and streaks appear on the printouts. 

Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. Low toner or ink levels
B. Incorrect print driver installation
C. Network connectivity issues
D. Paper jam in the tray

Answer: A

Explanation:

When a printer produces faded pages with streaks, the most common cause relates to physical consumables, specifically toner or ink levels.

Low toner or ink levels (option A) are a frequent reason for poor print quality. Toner cartridges in laser printers or ink cartridges in inkjet printers contain the medium that forms the printed image or text. When these levels drop below a critical threshold, the printer cannot deposit enough toner or ink on the paper, resulting in faded or streaked prints. Additionally, toner cartridges sometimes need to be shaken or replaced to ensure even distribution of toner powder.

Incorrect print driver installation (option B) might cause printing errors or miscommunication between the computer and printer, but it rarely causes faded printouts or streaks directly. Driver issues are more likely to cause failed print jobs, incorrect formatting, or communication errors.

Network connectivity issues (option C) can affect the ability to send print jobs to the printer but don’t influence the quality of the printed output itself.

Paper jams (option D) can cause the printer to stop or produce partially printed pages but usually don’t cause faded or streaked prints. Paper jams result in mechanical errors, not quality degradation of print output.

Thus, the best initial troubleshooting step is to check toner or ink levels and replace or refill cartridges if necessary. Cleaning the print heads or rollers may also help if the problem persists. This approach aligns with standard printer maintenance practices and quickly addresses the most likely cause of faded or streaky printouts. Therefore, option A is the most accurate answer.

Question 10:

Which of the following mobile device features allows users to authenticate securely without entering a password and uses biometric data?

A. Two-factor authentication
B. Fingerprint scanner
C. VPN client
D. NFC (Near Field Communication)

Answer: B

Explanation:

Mobile devices often incorporate biometric authentication features to enhance security and usability by allowing users to unlock devices or authenticate without manually typing passwords. Among the options, a fingerprint scanner (option B) is a biometric method that uses unique physical characteristics for authentication.

Biometric authentication relies on measurable physical or behavioral traits—like fingerprints, facial recognition, or iris scans—that are unique to individuals. A fingerprint scanner captures a user’s fingerprint pattern and matches it against stored templates to grant access securely and quickly.

Two-factor authentication (option A) is a security method requiring two separate forms of identification, such as a password plus a code sent to a phone. While highly secure, it typically involves entering a password or code, not replacing password input entirely.

VPN clients (option C) enable secure remote access to a network but do not authenticate users via biometrics. They manage encrypted connections rather than user authentication mechanisms.

NFC (Near Field Communication) (option D) is a technology for close-proximity wireless communication between devices, such as for payments or data exchange, but it is not an authentication method based on biometric data.

In summary, fingerprint scanners offer convenient, fast, and secure access without needing passwords, improving user experience while maintaining device security. Therefore, option B correctly identifies the biometric authentication feature described.

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