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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 59

Question 580

A security team wants to prioritize devices for vulnerability remediation after multiple endpoint alerts. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Verify installed version and the Defender inventory assessment freshness.
  2. Assess vulnerability exposure while separately checking exploit telemetry.
  3. Query software inventory and exposure evidence across permitted endpoints.
  4. Correlate exposure severity, asset criticality and observed attack evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Threat exposure and incident context together inform remediation priority. This directly addresses the requirement to prioritize risky endpoint vulnerabilities.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Device inventory timing can lag a real patch deployment. This addresses validate apparent stale vulnerability findings; it does not directly satisfy prioritize risky endpoint vulnerabilities.

B:

Vulnerability presence is not synonymous with confirmed exploitation. Its intended use is to distinguish exposure from active compromise, whereas this case requires the analyst to prioritize risky endpoint vulnerabilities.

C:

Software inventories help identify similarly exposed devices beyond the first alert. That action focuses on scope affected vulnerable software footprint rather than the specified need to prioritize risky endpoint vulnerabilities.

Question 581

A ransomware process is confirmed active on a supported employee workstation with ongoing lateral movement traffic. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Isolate the device through the authorized Defender for Endpoint response action.
  2. Release the device from isolation through approved response controls.
  3. Confirm the pending action state and sensor connectivity before reporting isolation complete.
  4. Evaluate operational impact and use the approved critical-system containment procedure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Device isolation limits network communication while retaining supported management access. This directly addresses the requirement to contain an actively compromised workstation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Recovery restores connectivity only after incident validation. Its intended use is to restore networking after safe containment, whereas this case requires the analyst to contain an actively compromised workstation.

C:

Offline endpoints may not execute response commands immediately. That action focuses on verify remote containment execution rather than the specified need to contain an actively compromised workstation.

D:

Isolation can interrupt availability and must consider critical business dependencies. This addresses avoid uncontrolled isolation of production control systems; it does not directly satisfy contain an actively compromised workstation.

Question 582

A workstation reappears healthy in inventory after remediation and analysts want proof of recovery. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Investigate the remaining initiating process and persistence rather than closing the incident.
  2. Validate fresh sensor telemetry, no recurrent malicious events and closed pending actions.
  3. Revoke unwanted application permissions alongside endpoint cleanup.
  4. Remove the confirmed malicious persistence configuration after preserving evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Recovery requires evidence of stable protected state beyond a single clean scan. This directly addresses the requirement to verify post-remediation endpoint health.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recurrent network indicators can reveal a surviving compromised component. This addresses detect incomplete endpoint cleanup; it does not directly satisfy verify post-remediation endpoint health.

C:

App permissions can persist independently of local extension presence. That action focuses on remove cloud persistence after endpoint remediation rather than the specified need to verify post-remediation endpoint health.

D:

Artifact quarantine alone may leave autostart mechanisms behind. This addresses eliminate residual task persistence; it does not directly satisfy verify post-remediation endpoint health.

Question 583

A known malicious file was quarantined, but its scheduled task still exists and launches a now-missing path. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Validate fresh sensor telemetry, no recurrent malicious events and closed pending actions.
  2. Investigate the remaining initiating process and persistence rather than closing the incident.
  3. Remove the confirmed malicious persistence configuration after preserving evidence.
  4. Revoke unwanted application permissions alongside endpoint cleanup.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Artifact quarantine alone may leave autostart mechanisms behind. This directly addresses the requirement to eliminate residual task persistence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery requires evidence of stable protected state beyond a single clean scan. This addresses verify post-remediation endpoint health; it does not directly satisfy eliminate residual task persistence.

B:

Recurrent network indicators can reveal a surviving compromised component. Its intended use is to detect incomplete endpoint cleanup, whereas this case requires the analyst to eliminate residual task persistence.

D:

App permissions can persist independently of local extension presence. This addresses remove cloud persistence after endpoint remediation; it does not directly satisfy eliminate residual task persistence.

Question 584

A workstation makes DNS queries for a domain seen in a phishing email, followed by HTTPS connections. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Use historical DNS and network telemetry from the event window.
  2. Pivot from the network event's initiating process identifier.
  3. Review connection action and transfer evidence before asserting successful data movement.
  4. Correlate device DNS and network event records for the domain and process.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DNS resolution plus subsequent connections provide a stronger network activity chain. This directly addresses the requirement to trace phishing domain access from endpoint.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Time-bound network evidence is more reliable than present-day resolution for past activity. This addresses reconstruct historical suspicious domain traffic; it does not directly satisfy trace phishing domain access from endpoint.

B:

Initiating process fields help attribute network communication to an executable. Its intended use is to identify the process behind a suspicious connection, whereas this case requires the analyst to trace phishing domain access from endpoint.

C:

Blocked egress is not proof that data was transmitted. That action focuses on distinguish blocked egress from data exfiltration rather than the specified need to trace phishing domain access from endpoint.

Question 585

An investigator asks which app requested Microsoft Graph permissions in an attack window. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Correlate app consent audit records with Graph and service principal activity.
  2. Use scoped eDiscovery content search on authorized locations.
  3. Search historical file permission or sharing audit operations.
  4. Examine operation-specific API and file access logs with their outcomes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Consent and app identity events reveal API authorization changes. This directly addresses the requirement to identify suspicious application consent.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Text and content matching locates stored items rather than who touched them. Its intended use is to locate stored documents containing an identifier, whereas this case requires the analyst to identify suspicious application consent.

C:

Sharing actions identify past access changes that current contents cannot reveal. That action focuses on attribute past sharing permission changes rather than the specified need to identify suspicious application consent.

D:

API methods and audit actions distinguish enumeration from content retrieval. This addresses distinguish file discovery from content access; it does not directly satisfy identify suspicious application consent.

Question 586

A search returns thousands of files because a generic keyword was used without date or source limits. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Review responsive search hits and attachment metadata within the authorized eDiscovery case.
  2. Refine keyword, time and location criteria and validate search preview.
  3. Investigate click and audit telemetry instead of treating content search as interaction logging.
  4. Coordinate case preservation and hold with security remediation so evidence is not destroyed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Search precision reduces irrelevant discoverable content without modifying source records. This directly addresses the requirement to narrow an overbroad discovery result.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hit-level inspection distinguishes actual attachment evidence from incidental keyword matches. This addresses validate responsive attachment-bearing messages before export; it does not directly satisfy narrow an overbroad discovery result.

C:

Stored content discovery and event activity records answer different questions. That action focuses on separate stored message from click activity rather than the specified need to narrow an overbroad discovery result.

D:

Preservation can prevent normal deletion from removing relevant items. This addresses preserve compromised mailbox content lawfully; it does not directly satisfy narrow an overbroad discovery result.

Question 587

A Purview audit export includes duplicate events after repeated collection runs. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Respect legal review boundaries and request authorized case access if necessary.
  2. Use stable application or service principal object identifiers for joins.
  3. Deduplicate using stable event identifiers and source context without removing distinct actions.
  4. Record query provenance, filters and normalized timestamps with the evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Idempotent audit processing prevents repeated exports from inflating findings. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid double counting audit operations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Content search permissions and legal confidentiality constrain investigative disclosure. This addresses protect privileged search material; it does not directly satisfy avoid double counting audit operations.

B:

Stable object IDs avoid collisions from shared names or renames. Its intended use is to uniquely attribute Graph API callers, whereas this case requires the analyst to avoid double counting audit operations.

D:

Search provenance allows later reproducibility and independent review. This addresses make audit conclusions reproducible; it does not directly satisfy avoid double counting audit operations.

Question 588

A SOC manager wants to close an insider-risk investigation based solely on an empty content search. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Align Exchange rule-change and SharePoint download events on a UTC timeline.
  2. Investigate request operations and outcomes rather than inferring exfiltration from volume alone.
  3. Coordinate evidence capture and legal hold before destructive content remediation.
  4. Review other telemetry and access permissions before drawing a negative conclusion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Search gaps, retention and scope affect what content is discoverable. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid premature closure from narrow discovery results.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Time-qualified multi-workload evidence helps identify attack progression. This addresses order mailbox persistence versus file access; it does not directly satisfy avoid premature closure from narrow discovery results.

B:

API request counts do not specify which data, if any, was transferred. Its intended use is to evaluate Graph request behavior precisely, whereas this case requires the analyst to avoid premature closure from narrow discovery results.

C:

Response actions must not compromise in-scope legal evidence. That action focuses on preserve discovery material before cleanup rather than the specified need to avoid premature closure from narrow discovery results.

Question 589

An investigator asks whether the attacker actually read file bytes or only listed folder metadata. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Examine operation-specific API and file access logs with their outcomes.
  2. Search historical file permission or sharing audit operations.
  3. Use scoped eDiscovery content search on authorized locations.
  4. Correlate app consent audit records with Graph and service principal activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

API methods and audit actions distinguish enumeration from content retrieval. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish file discovery from content access.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sharing actions identify past access changes that current contents cannot reveal. Its intended use is to attribute past sharing permission changes, whereas this case requires the analyst to distinguish file discovery from content access.

C:

Text and content matching locates stored items rather than who touched them. That action focuses on locate stored documents containing an identifier rather than the specified need to distinguish file discovery from content access.

D:

Consent and app identity events reveal API authorization changes. This addresses identify suspicious application consent; it does not directly satisfy distinguish file discovery from content access.

Question 590

A suspicious service principal makes large numbers of Microsoft Graph requests using app-only authentication. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Attribute the call using actor and authentication context rather than assuming an interactive UI action.
  2. Correlate Graph activity logs with service principal sign-ins and granted permissions.
  3. Collect and query supported Microsoft Graph activity logs with relevant operation and app fields.
  4. Inspect request status and follow-on entity audit events before concluding modification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

API and identity evidence link a workload identity to its observed use. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate possible application API abuse.

Incorrect Answers

A:

API events may originate from applications or automation. This addresses distinguish Graph API activity from UI usage; it does not directly satisfy investigate possible application API abuse.

C:

Graph activity records can show API caller and request context for supported operations. That action focuses on investigate Microsoft Graph API access rather than the specified need to investigate possible application API abuse.

D:

Failed API calls do not establish that the requested operation occurred. This addresses determine whether an API change succeeded; it does not directly satisfy investigate possible application API abuse.


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