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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 61

Question 600

A Sentinel workspace has sign-in logs but no Microsoft Graph API request telemetry for a suspicious app. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Verify data source health before interpreting absent events as benign behavior.
  2. Inspect the deployed Graph activity table schema and correct the query.
  3. Filter by application identifier, operation and outcome within the available event schema.
  4. Configure the supported Microsoft Graph activity log source and validate event arrival.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Sign-ins and Graph request activity are distinct audit streams. This directly addresses the requirement to add application API request visibility.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Telemetry outage creates a monitoring blind spot rather than proof of inactivity. This addresses distinguish Graph telemetry gaps from no abuse; it does not directly satisfy add application API request visibility.

B:

Table and field names must match the actual ingestion integration. Its intended use is to fix Graph activity query source, whereas this case requires the analyst to add application API request visibility.

C:

Targeted API-query filters reduce unrelated requests. That action focuses on isolate privilege-affecting app API calls rather than the specified need to add application API request visibility.

Question 601

An analyst expects eDiscovery content search to show who clicked a phishing URL in an email. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Investigate click and audit telemetry instead of treating content search as interaction logging.
  2. Review responsive search hits and attachment metadata within the authorized eDiscovery case.
  3. Coordinate case preservation and hold with security remediation so evidence is not destroyed.
  4. Refine keyword, time and location criteria and validate search preview.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Stored content discovery and event activity records answer different questions. This directly addresses the requirement to separate stored message from click activity.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Hit-level inspection distinguishes actual attachment evidence from incidental keyword matches. Its intended use is to validate responsive attachment-bearing messages before export, whereas this case requires the analyst to separate stored message from click activity.

C:

Preservation can prevent normal deletion from removing relevant items. That action focuses on preserve compromised mailbox content lawfully rather than the specified need to separate stored message from click activity.

D:

Search precision reduces irrelevant discoverable content without modifying source records. This addresses narrow an overbroad discovery result; it does not directly satisfy separate stored message from click activity.

Question 602

An employee states a confidential SharePoint document disappeared and the SOC needs who deleted it and when. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Correlate directory audit activity with role assignment and actor fields.
  2. Search relevant Purview Audit file-delete operations in the affected location and time range.
  3. Investigate file-sharing and permission-change operations in Purview Audit.
  4. Search mailbox audit records for rule and forwarding setting changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Audit records can reveal supported file operations and the recorded actor. This directly addresses the requirement to attribute a SharePoint document deletion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identity audit operations document privileged configuration changes. This addresses verify a suspicious role assignment event; it does not directly satisfy attribute a SharePoint document deletion.

C:

Sharing audit events provide historical access changes beyond current permissions. That action focuses on trace a historical external sharing event rather than the specified need to attribute a SharePoint document deletion.

D:

Mailbox administration events can expose persistence changes following account takeover. This addresses find suspicious mailbox forwarding changes; it does not directly satisfy attribute a SharePoint document deletion.

Question 603

A Graph activity record suggests a file was read, but SharePoint audit shows a later external sharing event. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Correlate the audited file identifiers with authorized content classification search.
  2. Separate evidentiary items from actual attack cases and correlated alerts.
  3. Reconstruct each API and file activity with a consistent entity and time model.
  4. Combine message evidence with click, audit and endpoint activity where available.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cross-source timeline integration clarifies distinct access and sharing stages. This directly addresses the requirement to reconstruct cloud file access and sharing sequence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Activity and content discovery together establish both action and data sensitivity. This addresses assess sensitivity of downloaded files; it does not directly satisfy reconstruct cloud file access and sharing sequence.

B:

Document count and incident count measure different operational concepts. Its intended use is to avoid conflating eDiscovery hits with incidents, whereas this case requires the analyst to reconstruct cloud file access and sharing sequence.

D:

Stored email location alone does not establish end-user interaction. This addresses evaluate phishing interaction after discovery; it does not directly satisfy reconstruct cloud file access and sharing sequence.

Question 604

A legal team has an eDiscovery search result for messages involving a suspected malicious attachment and must confirm which hits contain that actual artifact. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Refine keyword, time and location criteria and validate search preview.
  2. Investigate click and audit telemetry instead of treating content search as interaction logging.
  3. Coordinate case preservation and hold with security remediation so evidence is not destroyed.
  4. Review responsive search hits and attachment metadata within the authorized eDiscovery case.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Hit-level inspection distinguishes actual attachment evidence from incidental keyword matches. This directly addresses the requirement to validate responsive attachment-bearing messages before export.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Search precision reduces irrelevant discoverable content without modifying source records. This addresses narrow an overbroad discovery result; it does not directly satisfy validate responsive attachment-bearing messages before export.

B:

Stored content discovery and event activity records answer different questions. Its intended use is to separate stored message from click activity, whereas this case requires the analyst to validate responsive attachment-bearing messages before export.

C:

Preservation can prevent normal deletion from removing relevant items. That action focuses on preserve compromised mailbox content lawfully rather than the specified need to validate responsive attachment-bearing messages before export.

Question 605

An analyst mistakenly sends eDiscovery exports to a personal storage service. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Stop unauthorized disclosure and use approved protected evidence storage.
  2. Export through the authorized eDiscovery workflow and record integrity and chain-of-custody evidence.
  3. Request scoped eDiscovery or content-search role access rather than bypassing permissions.
  4. Select the authorized custodian and location filters before executing discovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Search results often contain sensitive material requiring controlled handling. This directly addresses the requirement to contain discovery export data leakage.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Governed export preserves review provenance and helps detect subsequent changes. Its intended use is to provide defensible evidence export, whereas this case requires the analyst to contain discovery export data leakage.

C:

Content inspection is governed by separate role and case controls. That action focuses on protect regulated content search access rather than the specified need to contain discovery export data leakage.

D:

Custodial scoping avoids unnecessary acquisition of unrelated employees' content. This addresses minimize eDiscovery search scope; it does not directly satisfy contain discovery export data leakage.

Question 606

An investigator seeks activity from last year but the tenant's current audit search retention is shorter. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Review record-specific retention and licensing before setting investigative expectations.
  2. Verify audit retention eligibility and whether the historical records still exist.
  3. Configure an eligible audit log retention policy for the required scope and duration.
  4. Follow approved evidence preservation and export requirements while data remains accessible.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Availability depends on applicable retention and licensing; absent results cannot be reconstructed by filters. This directly addresses the requirement to assess expired audit evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Audit availability varies by applicable event type and policy. This addresses respect different audit record retention windows; it does not directly satisfy assess expired audit evidence.

C:

Scoped retention policies can preserve qualifying future records longer under supported entitlements. That action focuses on retain privileged audit records longer rather than the specified need to assess expired audit evidence.

D:

Legal preservation may require a distinct process from ordinary audit retention settings. This addresses safeguard audit evidence before expiry; it does not directly satisfy assess expired audit evidence.

Question 607

An investigator asks who gave external access to a document last month. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Correlate app consent audit records with Graph and service principal activity.
  2. Use scoped eDiscovery content search on authorized locations.
  3. Search historical file permission or sharing audit operations.
  4. Examine operation-specific API and file access logs with their outcomes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Sharing actions identify past access changes that current contents cannot reveal. This directly addresses the requirement to attribute past sharing permission changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Consent and app identity events reveal API authorization changes. This addresses identify suspicious application consent; it does not directly satisfy attribute past sharing permission changes.

B:

Text and content matching locates stored items rather than who touched them. Its intended use is to locate stored documents containing an identifier, whereas this case requires the analyst to attribute past sharing permission changes.

D:

API methods and audit actions distinguish enumeration from content retrieval. This addresses distinguish file discovery from content access; it does not directly satisfy attribute past sharing permission changes.

Question 608

A new Graph activity source starts logging but the analytic references a different table and returns no events. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Filter by application identifier, operation and outcome within the available event schema.
  2. Configure the supported Microsoft Graph activity log source and validate event arrival.
  3. Verify data source health before interpreting absent events as benign behavior.
  4. Inspect the deployed Graph activity table schema and correct the query.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Table and field names must match the actual ingestion integration. This directly addresses the requirement to fix Graph activity query source.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Targeted API-query filters reduce unrelated requests. This addresses isolate privilege-affecting app API calls; it does not directly satisfy fix Graph activity query source.

B:

Sign-ins and Graph request activity are distinct audit streams. Its intended use is to add application API request visibility, whereas this case requires the analyst to fix Graph activity query source.

C:

Telemetry outage creates a monitoring blind spot rather than proof of inactivity. That action focuses on distinguish Graph telemetry gaps from no abuse rather than the specified need to fix Graph activity query source.

Question 609

An investigator uses local timestamps in one report and UTC timestamps in another without labeling units. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Normalize and annotate time zones before writing the final incident chronology.
  2. Restrict evidence access to case-authorized reviewers and audit access grants.
  3. Report observed operations, search scope and missing evidence separately.
  4. Export and preserve necessary records through approved methods while still available.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Explicit timezone labels prevent false sequence conclusions. This directly addresses the requirement to maintain consistent forensic timestamp reporting.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Case-based authorization protects privileged content while preserving accountable review. Its intended use is to enforce need-to-know access to privileged evidence, whereas this case requires the analyst to maintain consistent forensic timestamp reporting.

C:

Precise caveats prevent absence of logs from being mistaken for absence of compromise. That action focuses on communicate limits of Microsoft 365 audit evidence rather than the specified need to maintain consistent forensic timestamp reporting.

D:

Delayed preservation risks loss when the retention window expires. This addresses preserve expiring audit evidence; it does not directly satisfy maintain consistent forensic timestamp reporting.

Question 610

An analyst wants to remove every suspicious file before legal confirms preservation requirements. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Investigate request operations and outcomes rather than inferring exfiltration from volume alone.
  2. Coordinate evidence capture and legal hold before destructive content remediation.
  3. Review other telemetry and access permissions before drawing a negative conclusion.
  4. Align Exchange rule-change and SharePoint download events on a UTC timeline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Response actions must not compromise in-scope legal evidence. This directly addresses the requirement to preserve discovery material before cleanup.

Incorrect Answers

A:

API request counts do not specify which data, if any, was transferred. This addresses evaluate Graph request behavior precisely; it does not directly satisfy preserve discovery material before cleanup.

C:

Search gaps, retention and scope affect what content is discoverable. That action focuses on avoid premature closure from narrow discovery results rather than the specified need to preserve discovery material before cleanup.

D:

Time-qualified multi-workload evidence helps identify attack progression. This addresses order mailbox persistence versus file access; it does not directly satisfy preserve discovery material before cleanup.


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