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Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

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Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 57

Question 560

An investigation package is incomplete because the endpoint disconnected during collection. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Filter the device timeline to that interval and inspect relevant events.
  2. Collect a Defender for Endpoint investigation package from the supported device.
  3. Store and share the package only through authorized secure evidence channels.
  4. Verify collection status and retry through the supported channel when the device returns online.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Forensic collection can be interrupted by connectivity or endpoint state. This directly addresses the requirement to recover from interrupted evidence collection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Timeline pivots give focused chronological context for observed actions. This addresses inspect a narrow endpoint event window; it does not directly satisfy recover from interrupted evidence collection.

B:

Investigation packages capture a bundle of forensic artifacts for offline review. Its intended use is to capture host persistence evidence, whereas this case requires the analyst to recover from interrupted evidence collection.

C:

Forensic bundles can contain sensitive system and user information. That action focuses on protect exported endpoint forensic artifacts rather than the specified need to recover from interrupted evidence collection.

Question 561

An analyst sees an encoded PowerShell command used during a suspicious login and wants the executing parent. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Query process ancestry and the full command-line context around that session.
  2. Confirm download and extraction without assuming script execution.
  3. Validate signer and change context while retaining suspicion if behavior contradicts baseline.
  4. Correlate device, timestamp and process creation identity rather than PID alone.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Parent-child evidence helps determine execution origin and intent. This directly addresses the requirement to trace encoded script execution origin.

Incorrect Answers

B:

File creation events are separate from process launch evidence. Its intended use is to distinguish staged malware from executed code, whereas this case requires the analyst to trace encoded script execution origin.

C:

Identity and operational context improve adjudication without treating signatures as infallible. That action focuses on assess legitimate signed process alerts rather than the specified need to trace encoded script execution origin.

D:

Process IDs can be recycled and require time-qualified attribution. This addresses avoid PID-reuse investigation errors; it does not directly satisfy trace encoded script execution origin.

Question 562

A compromised device is isolated automatically, but its incident also contains a compromised user that remains active. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Investigate and revoke compromised remote-access sessions as warranted.
  2. Verify and handle the related user identity through supported incident response controls.
  3. Document the action and affected device in the incident runbook and escalation channel.
  4. Verify documented supported disruption actions and use approved response workflows for unsupported tasks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Host containment and identity containment address distinct attack paths. This directly addresses the requirement to limit residual identity compromise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Endpoint network isolation does not invalidate separate remote access credentials. This addresses contain attack persistence beyond isolated host; it does not directly satisfy limit residual identity compromise.

C:

Accurate disruption records help business teams coordinate recovery. That action focuses on communicate automatic endpoint isolation rather than the specified need to limit residual identity compromise.

D:

Automatic disruption has predefined eligible actions rather than unlimited scripted power. This addresses respect attack disruption action boundaries; it does not directly satisfy limit residual identity compromise.

Question 563

An analyst wants to remove a malicious startup entry but first needs to preserve the original registry value. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Validate file signer, task command and change context before escalating.
  2. Correlate image-load telemetry and file reputation around the process execution.
  3. Capture the relevant registry evidence before authorized deletion.
  4. Inspect the registry event and associated initiating process in the device timeline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Evidence capture documents the persistence mechanism for later analysis. This directly addresses the requirement to preserve registry persistence evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Legitimate deployment tools can create persistence-like artifacts. This addresses adjudicate benign scheduled-task creation; it does not directly satisfy preserve registry persistence evidence.

B:

Module loading can expose injection or hijacking artifacts requiring further investigation. Its intended use is to examine unusual DLL loading behavior, whereas this case requires the analyst to preserve registry persistence evidence.

D:

Registry change and process ancestry help determine whether an autostart was malicious. This addresses investigate startup Run key creation; it does not directly satisfy preserve registry persistence evidence.

Question 564

An analyst needs a quick raw device timeline around one timestamp rather than an entire packaged evidence bundle. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Store and share the package only through authorized secure evidence channels.
  2. Collect a Defender for Endpoint investigation package from the supported device.
  3. Verify collection status and retry through the supported channel when the device returns online.
  4. Filter the device timeline to that interval and inspect relevant events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Timeline pivots give focused chronological context for observed actions. This directly addresses the requirement to inspect a narrow endpoint event window.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Forensic bundles can contain sensitive system and user information. This addresses protect exported endpoint forensic artifacts; it does not directly satisfy inspect a narrow endpoint event window.

B:

Investigation packages capture a bundle of forensic artifacts for offline review. Its intended use is to capture host persistence evidence, whereas this case requires the analyst to inspect a narrow endpoint event window.

C:

Forensic collection can be interrupted by connectivity or endpoint state. That action focuses on recover from interrupted evidence collection rather than the specified need to inspect a narrow endpoint event window.

Question 565

An endpoint's binary is deleted by the time an investigator connects and metadata has aged out. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Review retained alert and device timeline evidence before concluding no artifact existed.
  2. Review file metadata, signature and prevalence evidence in Defender for Endpoint.
  3. Distinguish file presence from observed execution when setting incident scope.
  4. Pivot on the file hash across permitted endpoint telemetry.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Historical event records can remain useful after the underlying file disappears. This directly addresses the requirement to preserve historical binary investigation context.

Incorrect Answers

B:

File evidence helps separate common signed software from suspicious rare executables. Its intended use is to assess a suspicious binary's reputation, whereas this case requires the analyst to preserve historical binary investigation context.

C:

Artifact detection alone does not demonstrate that a file ran on every host. That action focuses on differentiate execution and file presence rather than the specified need to preserve historical binary investigation context.

D:

Cryptographic hash identifiers connect the same file artifact across devices. This addresses find shared suspicious binaries; it does not directly satisfy preserve historical binary investigation context.

Question 566

A suspicious process loads an unknown DLL into a trusted application after initial access. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Inspect the registry event and associated initiating process in the device timeline.
  2. Correlate image-load telemetry and file reputation around the process execution.
  3. Validate file signer, task command and change context before escalating.
  4. Capture the relevant registry evidence before authorized deletion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Module loading can expose injection or hijacking artifacts requiring further investigation. This directly addresses the requirement to examine unusual DLL loading behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Registry change and process ancestry help determine whether an autostart was malicious. This addresses investigate startup Run key creation; it does not directly satisfy examine unusual DLL loading behavior.

C:

Legitimate deployment tools can create persistence-like artifacts. That action focuses on adjudicate benign scheduled-task creation rather than the specified need to examine unusual DLL loading behavior.

D:

Evidence capture documents the persistence mechanism for later analysis. This addresses preserve registry persistence evidence; it does not directly satisfy examine unusual DLL loading behavior.

Question 567

A package includes autostart information but the original filesystem has since been cleaned. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Treat collected files as untrusted evidence and analyze them in an isolated environment.
  2. Calculate and record cryptographic hashes under the approved chain-of-custody procedure.
  3. Use captured forensic artifacts and correlate them with historical timeline events.
  4. Compare collection timestamps and observed device state before declaring one package incorrect.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Package snapshots can preserve evidence lost during cleanup. This directly addresses the requirement to reconstruct cleaned persistence artifacts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Forensic artifacts can be malicious and must not be executed on analyst workstations. This addresses handle potentially malicious evidence safely; it does not directly satisfy reconstruct cleaned persistence artifacts.

B:

Integrity hashes help detect changes to acquired evidence files. Its intended use is to demonstrate forensic evidence integrity, whereas this case requires the analyst to reconstruct cleaned persistence artifacts.

D:

Forensic snapshots can legitimately differ as the host changes. This addresses reconcile time-separated evidence captures; it does not directly satisfy reconstruct cleaned persistence artifacts.

Question 568

The endpoint is sending suspicious traffic to a known malicious domain while running a critical production service. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Isolate the affected device when validated and permitted.
  2. Use the supported management-channel behavior of device isolation rather than ordinary unrestricted access.
  3. Verify final action execution status before claiming containment.
  4. Consider targeted network indicator blocking where supported and authorized before full isolation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Proportionate controls can stop identified malicious communications with lower operational impact. This directly addresses the requirement to contain specific malicious egress with limited disruption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Broad network containment is appropriate when multiple malicious channels remain active. This addresses stop multichannel lateral movement from a workstation; it does not directly satisfy contain specific malicious egress with limited disruption.

B:

Isolation preserves limited responder connectivity on eligible platforms. Its intended use is to maintain controlled response access to isolated devices, whereas this case requires the analyst to contain specific malicious egress with limited disruption.

C:

Command submission and actual network enforcement are different events. That action focuses on confirm effective endpoint isolation rather than the specified need to contain specific malicious egress with limited disruption.

Question 569

A security engineer assumes the attack disruption feature can execute arbitrary custom scripts during every detection. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Verify documented supported disruption actions and use approved response workflows for unsupported tasks.
  2. Investigate and revoke compromised remote-access sessions as warranted.
  3. Document the action and affected device in the incident runbook and escalation channel.
  4. Verify and handle the related user identity through supported incident response controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Automatic disruption has predefined eligible actions rather than unlimited scripted power. This directly addresses the requirement to respect attack disruption action boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Endpoint network isolation does not invalidate separate remote access credentials. Its intended use is to contain attack persistence beyond isolated host, whereas this case requires the analyst to respect attack disruption action boundaries.

C:

Accurate disruption records help business teams coordinate recovery. That action focuses on communicate automatic endpoint isolation rather than the specified need to respect attack disruption action boundaries.

D:

Host containment and identity containment address distinct attack paths. This addresses limit residual identity compromise; it does not directly satisfy respect attack disruption action boundaries.

Question 570

An endpoint alert involves an outdated browser version exposed to a known exploit, but no malicious process activity is present. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Correlate exposure severity, asset criticality and observed attack evidence.
  2. Assess vulnerability exposure while separately checking exploit telemetry.
  3. Query software inventory and exposure evidence across permitted endpoints.
  4. Verify installed version and the Defender inventory assessment freshness.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Vulnerability presence is not synonymous with confirmed exploitation. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish exposure from active compromise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat exposure and incident context together inform remediation priority. This addresses prioritize risky endpoint vulnerabilities; it does not directly satisfy distinguish exposure from active compromise.

C:

Software inventories help identify similarly exposed devices beyond the first alert. That action focuses on scope affected vulnerable software footprint rather than the specified need to distinguish exposure from active compromise.

D:

Device inventory timing can lag a real patch deployment. This addresses validate apparent stale vulnerability findings; it does not directly satisfy distinguish exposure from active compromise.


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