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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

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Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 54

Question 530

A responder must run an approved script during Live Response, but the script is not available in the permitted library. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Open an authorized Defender for Endpoint Live Response session.
  2. Upload and approve the script through the supported Live Response library workflow.
  3. Collect relevant investigation artifacts first, then execute approved remediation steps.
  4. Verify endpoint RBAC and Live Response permissions for that device group.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Library restrictions govern which artifacts can be run in remote sessions. This directly addresses the requirement to execute a governed response script.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Live Response supplies controlled remote investigation actions on supported endpoints. This addresses investigate a device remotely; it does not directly satisfy execute a governed response script.

C:

Evidence-first sequencing protects forensic value during interactive response. That action focuses on avoid altering evidence before collection rather than the specified need to execute a governed response script.

D:

Remote command execution requires appropriate delegated response rights. This addresses authorize Live Response for assigned devices; it does not directly satisfy execute a governed response script.

Question 531

An automated cleanup action failed due to a device-offline error and was incorrectly marked successful in the ticket. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Inspect the action details and associated file identity before reversing it.
  2. Review Action center action records and approval history.
  3. Correct the ticket status and retry when endpoint connectivity permits.
  4. Inspect Action center pending states and action history before describing the device as remediated.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Response commands can remain pending or fail when target devices are unreachable. This directly addresses the requirement to resolve failed device remediation accurately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File-specific response records support a safe incident correction. This addresses audit potentially incorrect cleanup target; it does not directly satisfy resolve failed device remediation accurately.

B:

Action-level audit details differentiate automated from human-approved response. Its intended use is to measure endpoint remediation approval types, whereas this case requires the analyst to resolve failed device remediation accurately.

D:

Investigation completion does not imply that pending response commands were performed on the endpoint. This addresses determine whether queued remediation was actually executed; it does not directly satisfy resolve failed device remediation accurately.

Question 532

A Live Response session fails on a device where the assigned analyst has only read access. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Upload and approve the script through the supported Live Response library workflow.
  2. Collect relevant investigation artifacts first, then execute approved remediation steps.
  3. Open an authorized Defender for Endpoint Live Response session.
  4. Verify endpoint RBAC and Live Response permissions for that device group.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Remote command execution requires appropriate delegated response rights. This directly addresses the requirement to authorize Live Response for assigned devices.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Library restrictions govern which artifacts can be run in remote sessions. This addresses execute a governed response script; it does not directly satisfy authorize Live Response for assigned devices.

B:

Evidence-first sequencing protects forensic value during interactive response. Its intended use is to avoid altering evidence before collection, whereas this case requires the analyst to authorize Live Response for assigned devices.

C:

Live Response supplies controlled remote investigation actions on supported endpoints. That action focuses on investigate a device remotely rather than the specified need to authorize Live Response for assigned devices.

Question 533

A Live Response command starts but hangs, leaving the analyst unsure whether it changed the system. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Review command execution status and resulting device evidence before retrying.
  2. Use an approved read-only Live Response inspection command for that directory.
  3. Use the approved targeted Live Response removal action.
  4. Review the script through the approved Live Response library and change process.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Blind retries can duplicate destructive actions or alter evidence. This directly addresses the requirement to verify outcome of interrupted response commands.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Non-mutating inspection gathers focused context before evidence collection. Its intended use is to inspect suspicious device paths safely, whereas this case requires the analyst to verify outcome of interrupted response commands.

C:

Focused remediation removes the identified artifact while respecting evidence preservation. That action focuses on execute authorized targeted file removal rather than the specified need to verify outcome of interrupted response commands.

D:

Untrusted code introduces additional risk during active incident handling. This addresses prevent unsafe responder script execution; it does not directly satisfy verify outcome of interrupted response commands.

Question 534

An EDR process alert looks severe but the file is digitally signed by an approved vendor and launched by IT automation. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Confirm download and extraction without assuming script execution.
  2. Validate signer and change context while retaining suspicion if behavior contradicts baseline.
  3. Correlate device, timestamp and process creation identity rather than PID alone.
  4. Query process ancestry and the full command-line context around that session.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Identity and operational context improve adjudication without treating signatures as infallible. This directly addresses the requirement to assess legitimate signed process alerts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File creation events are separate from process launch evidence. This addresses distinguish staged malware from executed code; it does not directly satisfy assess legitimate signed process alerts.

C:

Process IDs can be recycled and require time-qualified attribution. That action focuses on avoid PID-reuse investigation errors rather than the specified need to assess legitimate signed process alerts.

D:

Parent-child evidence helps determine execution origin and intent. This addresses trace encoded script execution origin; it does not directly satisfy assess legitimate signed process alerts.

Question 535

A compromised machine's network communications are blocked, but the attacker may still hold valid privileged credentials. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Use supported management access and approved investigation procedures while maintaining containment.
  2. Review the incident's automatic attack disruption action and isolation context.
  3. Investigate and remediate linked identities in addition to endpoint containment.
  4. Check attack confidence, protection prerequisites and eligible product coverage.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Device isolation does not automatically revoke stolen identity sessions. This directly addresses the requirement to complete identity containment after device isolation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Some response channels remain available even when ordinary network communication is blocked. This addresses collect forensic evidence during attack containment; it does not directly satisfy complete identity containment after device isolation.

B:

Automatic disruption contains supported attack activity when confidence and eligibility criteria are met. Its intended use is to audit attack-disruption device containment, whereas this case requires the analyst to complete identity containment after device isolation.

D:

Disruption is not triggered for every low-confidence anomaly. This addresses explain why attack disruption did not fire; it does not directly satisfy complete identity containment after device isolation.

Question 536

A compromised workstation is being used for lateral movement and targeted domain blocks leave multiple communication paths open. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Consider targeted network indicator blocking where supported and authorized before full isolation.
  2. Verify final action execution status before claiming containment.
  3. Use the supported management-channel behavior of device isolation rather than ordinary unrestricted access.
  4. Isolate the affected device when validated and permitted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Broad network containment is appropriate when multiple malicious channels remain active. This directly addresses the requirement to stop multichannel lateral movement from a workstation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Proportionate controls can stop identified malicious communications with lower operational impact. This addresses contain specific malicious egress with limited disruption; it does not directly satisfy stop multichannel lateral movement from a workstation.

B:

Command submission and actual network enforcement are different events. Its intended use is to confirm effective endpoint isolation, whereas this case requires the analyst to stop multichannel lateral movement from a workstation.

C:

Isolation preserves limited responder connectivity on eligible platforms. That action focuses on maintain controlled response access to isolated devices rather than the specified need to stop multichannel lateral movement from a workstation.

Question 537

An analyst needs to inspect suspicious processes and files on a supported device without physically visiting it. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Open an authorized Defender for Endpoint Live Response session.
  2. Upload and approve the script through the supported Live Response library workflow.
  3. Collect relevant investigation artifacts first, then execute approved remediation steps.
  4. Verify endpoint RBAC and Live Response permissions for that device group.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Live Response supplies controlled remote investigation actions on supported endpoints. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate a device remotely.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Library restrictions govern which artifacts can be run in remote sessions. Its intended use is to execute a governed response script, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate a device remotely.

C:

Evidence-first sequencing protects forensic value during interactive response. That action focuses on avoid altering evidence before collection rather than the specified need to investigate a device remotely.

D:

Remote command execution requires appropriate delegated response rights. This addresses authorize Live Response for assigned devices; it does not directly satisfy investigate a device remotely.

Question 538

A browser downloads an archive that extracts a script, but the script is never executed. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Query process ancestry and the full command-line context around that session.
  2. Confirm download and extraction without assuming script execution.
  3. Correlate device, timestamp and process creation identity rather than PID alone.
  4. Validate signer and change context while retaining suspicion if behavior contradicts baseline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

File creation events are separate from process launch evidence. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish staged malware from executed code.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Parent-child evidence helps determine execution origin and intent. This addresses trace encoded script execution origin; it does not directly satisfy distinguish staged malware from executed code.

C:

Process IDs can be recycled and require time-qualified attribution. That action focuses on avoid PID-reuse investigation errors rather than the specified need to distinguish staged malware from executed code.

D:

Identity and operational context improve adjudication without treating signatures as infallible. This addresses assess legitimate signed process alerts; it does not directly satisfy distinguish staged malware from executed code.

Question 539

The analyst sees a blocked connection event and assumes an exfiltration succeeded. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Pivot from the network event's initiating process identifier.
  2. Use historical DNS and network telemetry from the event window.
  3. Review connection action and transfer evidence before asserting successful data movement.
  4. Correlate device DNS and network event records for the domain and process.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Blocked egress is not proof that data was transmitted. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish blocked egress from data exfiltration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Initiating process fields help attribute network communication to an executable. This addresses identify the process behind a suspicious connection; it does not directly satisfy distinguish blocked egress from data exfiltration.

B:

Time-bound network evidence is more reliable than present-day resolution for past activity. Its intended use is to reconstruct historical suspicious domain traffic, whereas this case requires the analyst to distinguish blocked egress from data exfiltration.

D:

DNS resolution plus subsequent connections provide a stronger network activity chain. This addresses trace phishing domain access from endpoint; it does not directly satisfy distinguish blocked egress from data exfiltration.

Question 540

A responder needs to list a known suspicious directory without downloading every file immediately. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Review command execution status and resulting device evidence before retrying.
  2. Review the script through the approved Live Response library and change process.
  3. Use the approved targeted Live Response removal action.
  4. Use an approved read-only Live Response inspection command for that directory.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Non-mutating inspection gathers focused context before evidence collection. This directly addresses the requirement to inspect suspicious device paths safely.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Blind retries can duplicate destructive actions or alter evidence. This addresses verify outcome of interrupted response commands; it does not directly satisfy inspect suspicious device paths safely.

B:

Untrusted code introduces additional risk during active incident handling. Its intended use is to prevent unsafe responder script execution, whereas this case requires the analyst to inspect suspicious device paths safely.

C:

Focused remediation removes the identified artifact while respecting evidence preservation. That action focuses on execute authorized targeted file removal rather than the specified need to inspect suspicious device paths safely.


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