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Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

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Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 53

Question 520

A benign internal utility was quarantined by mistake after an overly broad file indicator. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Add a scoped supported blocking indicator after validating the hash.
  2. Scope remediation to confirmed indicators and associated malicious behavior.
  3. Use the authorized stop or quarantine action against the specific file or process.
  4. Confirm the file is safe and restore it through the supported action workflow.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recovery reverses a false positive without creating a broad security bypass. This directly addresses the requirement to reverse a mistaken endpoint file quarantine.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Indicator control can prevent future execution or use of a known malicious artifact. This addresses block recurrence of a verified malicious hash; it does not directly satisfy reverse a mistaken endpoint file quarantine.

B:

Unsigned status alone does not establish maliciousness across all programs. Its intended use is to avoid deleting unrelated unsigned software, whereas this case requires the analyst to reverse a mistaken endpoint file quarantine.

C:

File-targeted remediation can remove a verified malicious artifact from eligible endpoints. That action focuses on remediate a known malicious executable rather than the specified need to reverse a mistaken endpoint file quarantine.

Question 521

An incident names a malicious executable but investigators need its command-line arguments and launching account. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Pivot to the process event details in the device timeline.
  2. Correlate network events and service or process activity by event time.
  3. Expand the device timeline search to the relevant historical interval.
  4. Examine the device timeline and parent-child process chain around execution.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Process telemetry includes launch context useful for behavior attribution. This directly addresses the requirement to determine malicious process execution context.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Time alignment links outbound communication with candidate executing processes. Its intended use is to reconstruct a service-initiated network connection, whereas this case requires the analyst to determine malicious process execution context.

C:

Investigation windows must include the event's actual time to avoid missing evidence. That action focuses on locate prior device execution evidence rather than the specified need to determine malicious process execution context.

D:

Process ancestry links an initial document action to a suspicious script child. This addresses investigate document-launched PowerShell activity; it does not directly satisfy determine malicious process execution context.

Question 522

An approved software update creates a scheduled task matching a persistence analytic. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Inspect the registry event and associated initiating process in the device timeline.
  2. Validate file signer, task command and change context before escalating.
  3. Correlate image-load telemetry and file reputation around the process execution.
  4. Capture the relevant registry evidence before authorized deletion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Legitimate deployment tools can create persistence-like artifacts. This directly addresses the requirement to adjudicate benign scheduled-task creation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Registry change and process ancestry help determine whether an autostart was malicious. This addresses investigate startup Run key creation; it does not directly satisfy adjudicate benign scheduled-task creation.

C:

Module loading can expose injection or hijacking artifacts requiring further investigation. That action focuses on examine unusual DLL loading behavior rather than the specified need to adjudicate benign scheduled-task creation.

D:

Evidence capture documents the persistence mechanism for later analysis. This addresses preserve registry persistence evidence; it does not directly satisfy adjudicate benign scheduled-task creation.

Question 523

A historical endpoint alert is being treated as an active compromise even though the device no longer exists. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Preserve available historical cloud events and incident evidence before closure.
  2. Compare historical and current device identifiers and relevant event sequences.
  3. Confirm asset lifecycle and latest telemetry before deciding on active containment.
  4. Correlate old and new device identities with host and enrollment history.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Obsolete asset records require historical, not live-device, response assumptions. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish retired endpoint alerts from active threats.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Historical Defender event records can support reconstruction after local artifacts are removed. This addresses investigate reimaged device activity; it does not directly satisfy distinguish retired endpoint alerts from active threats.

B:

Hostname alone may not uniquely tie historical and new device sessions together. Its intended use is to verify recurrence across device replacements, whereas this case requires the analyst to distinguish retired endpoint alerts from active threats.

D:

Device identity changes can split incident evidence across inventory records. This addresses link endpoint evidence across reenrollment; it does not directly satisfy distinguish retired endpoint alerts from active threats.

Question 524

A hostname's IP changed after the incident and current DNS no longer matches the old device record. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Pivot from the network event's initiating process identifier.
  2. Correlate device DNS and network event records for the domain and process.
  3. Review connection action and transfer evidence before asserting successful data movement.
  4. Use historical DNS and network telemetry from the event window.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Time-bound network evidence is more reliable than present-day resolution for past activity. This directly addresses the requirement to reconstruct historical suspicious domain traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Initiating process fields help attribute network communication to an executable. This addresses identify the process behind a suspicious connection; it does not directly satisfy reconstruct historical suspicious domain traffic.

B:

DNS resolution plus subsequent connections provide a stronger network activity chain. Its intended use is to trace phishing domain access from endpoint, whereas this case requires the analyst to reconstruct historical suspicious domain traffic.

C:

Blocked egress is not proof that data was transmitted. That action focuses on distinguish blocked egress from data exfiltration rather than the specified need to reconstruct historical suspicious domain traffic.

Question 525

A malicious browser extension was disabled but its OAuth grant remains authorized to access account data. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Revoke unwanted application permissions alongside endpoint cleanup.
  2. Validate fresh sensor telemetry, no recurrent malicious events and closed pending actions.
  3. Remove the confirmed malicious persistence configuration after preserving evidence.
  4. Investigate the remaining initiating process and persistence rather than closing the incident.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

App permissions can persist independently of local extension presence. This directly addresses the requirement to remove cloud persistence after endpoint remediation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Recovery requires evidence of stable protected state beyond a single clean scan. Its intended use is to verify post-remediation endpoint health, whereas this case requires the analyst to remove cloud persistence after endpoint remediation.

C:

Artifact quarantine alone may leave autostart mechanisms behind. That action focuses on eliminate residual task persistence rather than the specified need to remove cloud persistence after endpoint remediation.

D:

Recurrent network indicators can reveal a surviving compromised component. This addresses detect incomplete endpoint cleanup; it does not directly satisfy remove cloud persistence after endpoint remediation.

Question 526

A manufacturing server hosts a critical operational system and responders are considering an immediate broad device isolation. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Isolate the device through the authorized Defender for Endpoint response action.
  2. Evaluate operational impact and use the approved critical-system containment procedure.
  3. Confirm the pending action state and sensor connectivity before reporting isolation complete.
  4. Release the device from isolation through approved response controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Isolation can interrupt availability and must consider critical business dependencies. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid uncontrolled isolation of production control systems.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Device isolation limits network communication while retaining supported management access. This addresses contain an actively compromised workstation; it does not directly satisfy avoid uncontrolled isolation of production control systems.

C:

Offline endpoints may not execute response commands immediately. That action focuses on verify remote containment execution rather than the specified need to avoid uncontrolled isolation of production control systems.

D:

Recovery restores connectivity only after incident validation. This addresses restore networking after safe containment; it does not directly satisfy avoid uncontrolled isolation of production control systems.

Question 527

An endpoint is cleaned but repeated outbound attempts to an attacker-controlled IP continue from another process. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Revoke unwanted application permissions alongside endpoint cleanup.
  2. Remove the confirmed malicious persistence configuration after preserving evidence.
  3. Investigate the remaining initiating process and persistence rather than closing the incident.
  4. Validate fresh sensor telemetry, no recurrent malicious events and closed pending actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Recurrent network indicators can reveal a surviving compromised component. This directly addresses the requirement to detect incomplete endpoint cleanup.

Incorrect Answers

A:

App permissions can persist independently of local extension presence. This addresses remove cloud persistence after endpoint remediation; it does not directly satisfy detect incomplete endpoint cleanup.

B:

Artifact quarantine alone may leave autostart mechanisms behind. Its intended use is to eliminate residual task persistence, whereas this case requires the analyst to detect incomplete endpoint cleanup.

D:

Recovery requires evidence of stable protected state beyond a single clean scan. This addresses verify post-remediation endpoint health; it does not directly satisfy detect incomplete endpoint cleanup.

Question 528

A responder has the required endpoint role but cannot access one high-value server group. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Replace broad permissions with the minimal scoped response role.
  2. Revoke relevant endpoint roles and verify inherited group permissions.
  3. Assign a read-oriented endpoint role without advanced remediation rights.
  4. Check device group scope and eligible role assignments for that server.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Effective permissions are influenced by the device group's access boundary. This directly addresses the requirement to resolve device-group response denial.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Least privilege reduces unnecessary administrative exposure. This addresses avoid global privileges for endpoint isolation; it does not directly satisfy resolve device-group response denial.

B:

Offboarding prevents residual investigative and containment access. Its intended use is to remove departed analyst response privileges, whereas this case requires the analyst to resolve device-group response denial.

C:

Role separation limits dangerous actions while retaining investigative visibility. That action focuses on implement read-only endpoint triage rather than the specified need to resolve device-group response denial.

Question 529

A restored machine has the same hostname but a new sensor identifier and responders want to confirm no recurrence. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Compare historical and current device identifiers and relevant event sequences.
  2. Preserve available historical cloud events and incident evidence before closure.
  3. Confirm asset lifecycle and latest telemetry before deciding on active containment.
  4. Correlate old and new device identities with host and enrollment history.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Hostname alone may not uniquely tie historical and new device sessions together. This directly addresses the requirement to verify recurrence across device replacements.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Historical Defender event records can support reconstruction after local artifacts are removed. Its intended use is to investigate reimaged device activity, whereas this case requires the analyst to verify recurrence across device replacements.

C:

Obsolete asset records require historical, not live-device, response assumptions. That action focuses on distinguish retired endpoint alerts from active threats rather than the specified need to verify recurrence across device replacements.

D:

Device identity changes can split incident evidence across inventory records. This addresses link endpoint evidence across reenrollment; it does not directly satisfy verify recurrence across device replacements.

Question 530

A responder must run an approved script during Live Response, but the script is not available in the permitted library. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Open an authorized Defender for Endpoint Live Response session.
  2. Upload and approve the script through the supported Live Response library workflow.
  3. Collect relevant investigation artifacts first, then execute approved remediation steps.
  4. Verify endpoint RBAC and Live Response permissions for that device group.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Library restrictions govern which artifacts can be run in remote sessions. This directly addresses the requirement to execute a governed response script.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Live Response supplies controlled remote investigation actions on supported endpoints. This addresses investigate a device remotely; it does not directly satisfy execute a governed response script.

C:

Evidence-first sequencing protects forensic value during interactive response. That action focuses on avoid altering evidence before collection rather than the specified need to execute a governed response script.

D:

Remote command execution requires appropriate delegated response rights. This addresses authorize Live Response for assigned devices; it does not directly satisfy execute a governed response script.


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