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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 52

Question 510

A responder submits device isolation but the endpoint has been offline since the alert. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Release the device from isolation through approved response controls.
  2. Confirm the pending action state and sensor connectivity before reporting isolation complete.
  3. Evaluate operational impact and use the approved critical-system containment procedure.
  4. Isolate the device through the authorized Defender for Endpoint response action.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Offline endpoints may not execute response commands immediately. This directly addresses the requirement to verify remote containment execution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery restores connectivity only after incident validation. This addresses restore networking after safe containment; it does not directly satisfy verify remote containment execution.

C:

Isolation can interrupt availability and must consider critical business dependencies. That action focuses on avoid uncontrolled isolation of production control systems rather than the specified need to verify remote containment execution.

D:

Device isolation limits network communication while retaining supported management access. This addresses contain an actively compromised workstation; it does not directly satisfy verify remote containment execution.

Question 511

A SOC wants to preserve evidence before running commands that might change system state. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Open an authorized Defender for Endpoint Live Response session.
  2. Upload and approve the script through the supported Live Response library workflow.
  3. Collect relevant investigation artifacts first, then execute approved remediation steps.
  4. Verify endpoint RBAC and Live Response permissions for that device group.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Evidence-first sequencing protects forensic value during interactive response. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid altering evidence before collection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Live Response supplies controlled remote investigation actions on supported endpoints. This addresses investigate a device remotely; it does not directly satisfy avoid altering evidence before collection.

B:

Library restrictions govern which artifacts can be run in remote sessions. Its intended use is to execute a governed response script, whereas this case requires the analyst to avoid altering evidence before collection.

D:

Remote command execution requires appropriate delegated response rights. This addresses authorize Live Response for assigned devices; it does not directly satisfy avoid altering evidence before collection.

Question 512

A device alert indicates credential dumping behavior from a protected security process. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Confirm approved tool identity and execution context before classifying it as malicious.
  2. Correlate process, local account and group membership changes in the timeline.
  3. Follow evidence-preservation procedures before disruptive endpoint actions when feasible.
  4. Investigate process access and credential-theft evidence, then contain if confirmed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Suspicious access to sensitive security processes can signal credential harvesting. This directly addresses the requirement to respond to possible credential dumping.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sensitive process access needs context, not a blanket verdict. This addresses distinguish authorized diagnostics from credential theft; it does not directly satisfy respond to possible credential dumping.

B:

Identity and execution evidence together support privilege escalation analysis. Its intended use is to reconstruct local privilege elevation, whereas this case requires the analyst to respond to possible credential dumping.

C:

Volatile artifacts can disappear on restart and should be considered before cleanup. That action focuses on protect volatile forensic evidence rather than the specified need to respond to possible credential dumping.

Question 513

An infected workstation was reimaged before the SOC reviewed its original device timeline. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Preserve available historical cloud events and incident evidence before closure.
  2. Compare historical and current device identifiers and relevant event sequences.
  3. Correlate old and new device identities with host and enrollment history.
  4. Confirm asset lifecycle and latest telemetry before deciding on active containment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Historical Defender event records can support reconstruction after local artifacts are removed. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate reimaged device activity.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Hostname alone may not uniquely tie historical and new device sessions together. Its intended use is to verify recurrence across device replacements, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate reimaged device activity.

C:

Device identity changes can split incident evidence across inventory records. That action focuses on link endpoint evidence across reenrollment rather than the specified need to investigate reimaged device activity.

D:

Obsolete asset records require historical, not live-device, response assumptions. This addresses distinguish retired endpoint alerts from active threats; it does not directly satisfy investigate reimaged device activity.

Question 514

A user reports malware execution an hour ago but the latest timeline view starts 10 minutes ago. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Examine the device timeline and parent-child process chain around execution.
  2. Expand the device timeline search to the relevant historical interval.
  3. Correlate network events and service or process activity by event time.
  4. Pivot to the process event details in the device timeline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Investigation windows must include the event's actual time to avoid missing evidence. This directly addresses the requirement to locate prior device execution evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Process ancestry links an initial document action to a suspicious script child. This addresses investigate document-launched PowerShell activity; it does not directly satisfy locate prior device execution evidence.

C:

Time alignment links outbound communication with candidate executing processes. That action focuses on reconstruct a service-initiated network connection rather than the specified need to locate prior device execution evidence.

D:

Process telemetry includes launch context useful for behavior attribution. This addresses determine malicious process execution context; it does not directly satisfy locate prior device execution evidence.

Question 515

An investigation finds a false-positive detection and an isolated workstation has been confirmed clean. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Confirm the pending action state and sensor connectivity before reporting isolation complete.
  2. Isolate the device through the authorized Defender for Endpoint response action.
  3. Release the device from isolation through approved response controls.
  4. Evaluate operational impact and use the approved critical-system containment procedure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Recovery restores connectivity only after incident validation. This directly addresses the requirement to restore networking after safe containment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Offline endpoints may not execute response commands immediately. This addresses verify remote containment execution; it does not directly satisfy restore networking after safe containment.

B:

Device isolation limits network communication while retaining supported management access. Its intended use is to contain an actively compromised workstation, whereas this case requires the analyst to restore networking after safe containment.

D:

Isolation can interrupt availability and must consider critical business dependencies. This addresses avoid uncontrolled isolation of production control systems; it does not directly satisfy restore networking after safe containment.

Question 516

A security process was accessed by a known approved diagnostics tool during incident response. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Investigate process access and credential-theft evidence, then contain if confirmed.
  2. Correlate process, local account and group membership changes in the timeline.
  3. Follow evidence-preservation procedures before disruptive endpoint actions when feasible.
  4. Confirm approved tool identity and execution context before classifying it as malicious.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Sensitive process access needs context, not a blanket verdict. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish authorized diagnostics from credential theft.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Suspicious access to sensitive security processes can signal credential harvesting. This addresses respond to possible credential dumping; it does not directly satisfy distinguish authorized diagnostics from credential theft.

B:

Identity and execution evidence together support privilege escalation analysis. Its intended use is to reconstruct local privilege elevation, whereas this case requires the analyst to distinguish authorized diagnostics from credential theft.

C:

Volatile artifacts can disappear on restart and should be considered before cleanup. That action focuses on protect volatile forensic evidence rather than the specified need to distinguish authorized diagnostics from credential theft.

Question 517

Defender XDR automatically isolates an affected device during a high-confidence cross-domain ransomware attack. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Review the incident's automatic attack disruption action and isolation context.
  2. Use supported management access and approved investigation procedures while maintaining containment.
  3. Investigate and remediate linked identities in addition to endpoint containment.
  4. Check attack confidence, protection prerequisites and eligible product coverage.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Automatic disruption contains supported attack activity when confidence and eligibility criteria are met. This directly addresses the requirement to audit attack-disruption device containment.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Some response channels remain available even when ordinary network communication is blocked. Its intended use is to collect forensic evidence during attack containment, whereas this case requires the analyst to audit attack-disruption device containment.

C:

Device isolation does not automatically revoke stolen identity sessions. That action focuses on complete identity containment after device isolation rather than the specified need to audit attack-disruption device containment.

D:

Disruption is not triggered for every low-confidence anomaly. This addresses explain why attack disruption did not fire; it does not directly satisfy audit attack-disruption device containment.

Question 518

An updated application remains flagged vulnerable because inventory has not refreshed after patching. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Correlate exposure severity, asset criticality and observed attack evidence.
  2. Verify installed version and the Defender inventory assessment freshness.
  3. Query software inventory and exposure evidence across permitted endpoints.
  4. Assess vulnerability exposure while separately checking exploit telemetry.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Device inventory timing can lag a real patch deployment. This directly addresses the requirement to validate apparent stale vulnerability findings.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat exposure and incident context together inform remediation priority. This addresses prioritize risky endpoint vulnerabilities; it does not directly satisfy validate apparent stale vulnerability findings.

C:

Software inventories help identify similarly exposed devices beyond the first alert. That action focuses on scope affected vulnerable software footprint rather than the specified need to validate apparent stale vulnerability findings.

D:

Vulnerability presence is not synonymous with confirmed exploitation. This addresses distinguish exposure from active compromise; it does not directly satisfy validate apparent stale vulnerability findings.

Question 519

A SOC lead needs to know how many endpoint actions were manually approved versus automatic. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Inspect the action details and associated file identity before reversing it.
  2. Inspect Action center pending states and action history before describing the device as remediated.
  3. Review Action center action records and approval history.
  4. Correct the ticket status and retry when endpoint connectivity permits.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Action-level audit details differentiate automated from human-approved response. This directly addresses the requirement to measure endpoint remediation approval types.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File-specific response records support a safe incident correction. This addresses audit potentially incorrect cleanup target; it does not directly satisfy measure endpoint remediation approval types.

B:

Investigation completion does not imply that pending response commands were performed on the endpoint. Its intended use is to determine whether queued remediation was actually executed, whereas this case requires the analyst to measure endpoint remediation approval types.

D:

Response commands can remain pending or fail when target devices are unreachable. This addresses resolve failed device remediation accurately; it does not directly satisfy measure endpoint remediation approval types.

Question 520

A benign internal utility was quarantined by mistake after an overly broad file indicator. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Add a scoped supported blocking indicator after validating the hash.
  2. Scope remediation to confirmed indicators and associated malicious behavior.
  3. Use the authorized stop or quarantine action against the specific file or process.
  4. Confirm the file is safe and restore it through the supported action workflow.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recovery reverses a false positive without creating a broad security bypass. This directly addresses the requirement to reverse a mistaken endpoint file quarantine.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Indicator control can prevent future execution or use of a known malicious artifact. This addresses block recurrence of a verified malicious hash; it does not directly satisfy reverse a mistaken endpoint file quarantine.

B:

Unsigned status alone does not establish maliciousness across all programs. Its intended use is to avoid deleting unrelated unsigned software, whereas this case requires the analyst to reverse a mistaken endpoint file quarantine.

C:

File-targeted remediation can remove a verified malicious artifact from eligible endpoints. That action focuses on remediate a known malicious executable rather than the specified need to reverse a mistaken endpoint file quarantine.


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