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Microsoft AZ-140 Premium Bundle

AZ-140 Premium File: 372 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 02, 2026

AZ-140 Training Course: 79 Video Lectures

AZ-140 PDF Study Guide: 430 Pages

$79.99

AZ-140 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "AZ-140" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft AZ-140 Practice Test 13

Question 120

A production desktop deployment has the requirement to remove an interfering traffic-inspection hop from latency-sensitive remote desktop flow. Which action should the administrator choose?

  1. Separate user multimedia and bulk-transfer classes
  2. Avoidance of TLS/UDP proxy inspection
  3. RDP packet-loss observation
  4. DSCP markings checked at network boundary

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Extra proxy and packet-inspection devices can add delay to desktop traffic. This addresses the stated need to remove an interfering traffic-inspection hop from latency-sensitive remote desktop flow without substituting a different control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Differential traffic classes protect delay-sensitive interactive packets. This is relevant when the task is to give interactive audio and video flows higher priority than noncritical file transfers; it does not directly meet the requirement to remove an interfering traffic-inspection hop from latency-sensitive remote desktop flow.

C:

Packet-loss measurements isolate transport unreliability from compute load. This is relevant when the task is to identify dropped packets rather than VM CPU saturation as the principal media quality problem; it does not directly meet the requirement to remove an interfering traffic-inspection hop from latency-sensitive remote desktop flow.

D:

End-to-end QoS depends on intermediate infrastructure honoring the markings. This is relevant when the task is to find a switch or gateway that strips desktop media priority tags downstream; it does not directly meet the requirement to remove an interfering traffic-inspection hop from latency-sensitive remote desktop flow.

Question 121

After deploying Maintenance ring capacity assessment to preserve enough pooled session capacity during a rolling OS patch sequence, what direct observation provides the strongest acceptance evidence?

  1. Unaffected hosts accept normal user load while target ring is drained and updated
  2. Execution and compliance records reflect scheduled patch installation on targeted hosts
  3. Replacement hosts built from prior image pass required tests and broken version is not promoted
  4. Assessment results list required updates and affected VM IDs

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

This is the direct functional outcome for Maintenance ring capacity assessment: unaffected hosts accept normal user load while target ring is drained and updated. Reserved capacity reduces planned maintenance outage risk. The observed behavior supports the specified acceptance requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

That evidence concerns Azure Update Manager maintenance schedule, used to install approved Windows security updates in a controlled maintenance window. It does not establish whether Maintenance ring capacity assessment satisfies the current requirement to preserve enough pooled session capacity during a rolling OS patch sequence.

C:

That evidence concerns Image rollback after failed quality gate, used to restore new host provision to a previously approved gallery image when the latest baseline breaks logon. It does not establish whether Maintenance ring capacity assessment satisfies the current requirement to preserve enough pooled session capacity during a rolling OS patch sequence.

D:

That evidence concerns Azure Update Manager patch assessment, used to identify which session-host VMs are missing approved OS updates before scheduling installation. It does not establish whether Maintenance ring capacity assessment satisfies the current requirement to preserve enough pooled session capacity during a rolling OS patch sequence.

Question 122

A support analyst validates Existing-session reconnection affinity following the change to return a user who was disconnected back to their existing pooled session rather than starting a second unrelated session. Which measured result is expected?

  1. Deployment settings show the selected preferred app-group type and intended published experience
  2. Reconnect resumes the user's original session even if the host is in drain mode
  3. Reconnecting user returns to their assigned personal VM rather than a random pooled host
  4. An at-limit host receives no new user session until capacity opens

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This is the direct functional outcome for Existing-session reconnection affinity: reconnect resumes the user's original session even if the host is in drain mode. Pooled load balancing honors existing session reuse. The observed behavior supports the specified acceptance requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That evidence concerns Preferred application group type on host pool, used to specify the intended Desktop or RemoteApp default experience when creating the hostpool. It does not establish whether Existing-session reconnection affinity satisfies the current requirement to return a user who was disconnected back to their existing pooled session rather than starting a second unrelated session.

C:

That evidence concerns Personal host pool for dedicated desktop assignment, used to keep one designated virtual desktop linked to an individual user across reconnects. It does not establish whether Existing-session reconnection affinity satisfies the current requirement to return a user who was disconnected back to their existing pooled session rather than starting a second unrelated session.

D:

That evidence concerns Maximum session limit for depth-first, used to enforce a supported occupancy ceiling before the pooled load balancer places sessions on another host. It does not establish whether Existing-session reconnection affinity satisfies the current requirement to return a user who was disconnected back to their existing pooled session rather than starting a second unrelated session.

Question 123

A desktop operator is asked to avoid user activation errors when several licensed workers share one Windows session host. Which implementation is appropriate?

  1. Configure multi-session Office shared computer activation
  2. Install line-of-business application in reference VM
  3. Remove temporary build credentials from image
  4. Apply recommended system hardening baseline

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Shared computer activation supports multi-user environments. This addresses the stated need to avoid user activation errors when several licensed workers share one Windows session host without substituting a different control.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Preinstalled image applications are shared by VM instances. This is relevant when the task is to make a required legacy app available to all hosts launched from the standard image; it does not directly meet the requirement to avoid user activation errors when several licensed workers share one Windows session host.

C:

Image capture must exclude privileged build artifacts. This is relevant when the task is to prevent secrets and temporary build tokens from being copied onto every future session host; it does not directly meet the requirement to avoid user activation errors when several licensed workers share one Windows session host.

D:

Hardening in image creation reduces host-by-host drift. This is relevant when the task is to ensure new desktop session hosts inherit enforced Windows security controls; it does not directly meet the requirement to avoid user activation errors when several licensed workers share one Windows session host.

Question 124

Following approval of Azure Files SMB share-level Azure RBAC assignment to grant a user group permission to reach a profile SMB share while retaining identity-based authorization, which finding is the most relevant functional validation?

  1. Storage account domain integration succeeds and authorized AD users access folders using Kerberos
  2. The eligible group has the appropriate SMB Share Contributor access and can reach the share
  3. Signed-in users receive valid Kerberos tickets and mount authorized SMB folders using the approved identity
  4. SMB access succeeds from allowed hosts and is denied from disallowed source networks

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This is the direct functional outcome for Azure Files SMB share-level Azure RBAC assignment: the eligible group has the appropriate SMB Share Contributor access and can reach the share. Share-level RBAC is an independent authorization layer. The observed behavior supports the specified acceptance requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That evidence concerns AD DS integrated Azure Files SMB authentication, used to let domain-joined AVD hosts use an existing Active Directory identity for profile-share access. It does not establish whether Azure Files SMB share-level Azure RBAC assignment satisfies the current requirement to grant a user group permission to reach a profile SMB share while retaining identity-based authorization.

C:

That evidence concerns Microsoft Entra Kerberos for Azure Files, used to authenticate supported Microsoft Entra joined AVD hosts to a profile SMB share without routine domain-controller line-of-sight. It does not establish whether Azure Files SMB share-level Azure RBAC assignment satisfies the current requirement to grant a user group permission to reach a profile SMB share while retaining identity-based authorization.

D:

That evidence concerns Azure Files storage-account firewall rules, used to restrict SMB share endpoints to approved networks even when users have identity permissions. It does not establish whether Azure Files SMB share-level Azure RBAC assignment satisfies the current requirement to grant a user group permission to reach a profile SMB share while retaining identity-based authorization.

Question 125

A platform engineering group is evaluating the best supported way to measure which line-of-business binaries would be blocked before enforcing a new policy fleet-wide. Which option addresses that need?

  1. Security baseline deployment with Intune
  2. Controlled Folder Access enabled policy
  3. Controlled Folder Access audit mode
  4. App Control for Business audit mode

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Audit mode tests application policy impact safely. This addresses the stated need to measure which line-of-business binaries would be blocked before enforcing a new policy fleet-wide without substituting a different control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Intune configuration profiles centrally manage eligible Windows device settings. This is relevant when the task is to apply required Windows endpoint hardening settings consistently to supported AVD multi-session VMs; it does not directly meet the requirement to measure which line-of-business binaries would be blocked before enforcing a new policy fleet-wide.

B:

CFA restricts unauthorized changes to guarded folders. This is relevant when the task is to prevent untrusted processes from modifying protected user folders on a session host; it does not directly meet the requirement to measure which line-of-business binaries would be blocked before enforcing a new policy fleet-wide.

C:

Auditing exposes CFA compatibility risks. This is relevant when the task is to identify planned app compatibility problems before a protected folder policy is enforced; it does not directly meet the requirement to measure which line-of-business binaries would be blocked before enforcing a new policy fleet-wide.

Question 126

In a controlled lab, the team applied Controlled Folder Access audit mode so it could identify planned app compatibility problems before a protected folder policy is enforced. Which outcome verifies its behavior?

  1. Approved executable completes the write while an unrelated untrusted tool stays blocked
  2. Code Integrity event logs record predicted blocks while test programs still run
  3. Membership inspection shows only authorized administrators and nonadmin user actions are denied
  4. Audit results record would-be blocked writes without interrupting the current production workflow

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

This is the direct functional outcome for Controlled Folder Access audit mode: audit results record would-be blocked writes without interrupting the current production workflow. Auditing exposes CFA compatibility risks. The observed behavior supports the specified acceptance requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That evidence concerns Controlled Folder Access allowed-app list, used to permit a vetted line-of-business application to write to a protected folder without globally disabling protection. It does not establish whether Controlled Folder Access audit mode satisfies the current requirement to identify planned app compatibility problems before a protected folder policy is enforced.

B:

That evidence concerns App Control for Business audit mode, used to measure which line-of-business binaries would be blocked before enforcing a new policy fleet-wide. It does not establish whether Controlled Folder Access audit mode satisfies the current requirement to identify planned app compatibility problems before a protected folder policy is enforced.

C:

That evidence concerns Local Administrators group restrictions, used to prevent ordinary pooled desktop users from escalating to local admin privileges on shared hosts. It does not establish whether Controlled Folder Access audit mode satisfies the current requirement to identify planned app compatibility problems before a protected folder policy is enforced.

Question 127

A virtual desktop administrator receives a requirement to avoid a full domain join for a supported cloud-first Windows desktop deployment. What should they select?

  1. Domain service trust decision
  2. AD DS joined AVD host architecture
  3. Entra hybrid identity sync verification
  4. Microsoft Entra joined session hosts

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Entra join supports modern cloud-managed devices. This addresses the stated need to avoid a full domain join for a supported cloud-first Windows desktop deployment without substituting a different control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cross-domain authentication needs an appropriate trust relationship. This is relevant when the task is to support session hosts and users from two approved AD domains where cross-domain Kerberos needs a trust; it does not directly meet the requirement to avoid a full domain join for a supported cloud-first Windows desktop deployment.

B:

AD DS membership enables domain-backed Windows sign-in. This is relevant when the task is to keep Windows desktop hosts authenticating with an existing corporate Active Directory domain; it does not directly meet the requirement to avoid a full domain join for a supported cloud-first Windows desktop deployment.

C:

Hybrid identity sync aligns on-premises and cloud principals. This is relevant when the task is to ensure a legacy AD DS user maps to the intended Entra account for AVD service entitlement; it does not directly meet the requirement to avoid a full domain join for a supported cloud-first Windows desktop deployment.

Question 128

For a managed Azure Virtual Desktop service, administrators must allow cost reporting to distinguish departmental AVD session hosts from unrelated compute. Which setting or service fits?

  1. Azure resource tags on host pools and VMs
  2. Dedicated production resource group for AVD assets
  3. Separate subscription for regulated desktops
  4. Management-group policy assignment

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Tags attach queryable classification metadata to Azure resources. This addresses the stated need to allow cost reporting to distinguish departmental AVD session hosts from unrelated compute without substituting a different control.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Resource groups provide Azure resource lifecycle and access scope. This is relevant when the task is to isolate lifecycle and delegated management of production host pool resources from test infrastructure; it does not directly meet the requirement to allow cost reporting to distinguish departmental AVD session hosts from unrelated compute.

C:

Subscriptions are billing, quota and administrative boundaries. This is relevant when the task is to isolate finance chargeback and policy boundaries for a regulated virtual desktop environment; it does not directly meet the requirement to allow cost reporting to distinguish departmental AVD session hosts from unrelated compute.

D:

Management groups organize governance across subscriptions. This is relevant when the task is to enforce shared desktop governance across several subscriptions without copying each policy manually; it does not directly meet the requirement to allow cost reporting to distinguish departmental AVD session hosts from unrelated compute.

Question 129

A virtual desktop administrator receives a requirement to allow an enrolled managed client to authenticate with device-bound biometric or PIN credentials. What should they select?

  1. Smart-card authentication planning
  2. Security-group-based application entitlement
  3. User principal name consistency in hybrid setup
  4. Windows Hello for Business on AVD access devices

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Windows Hello provides passwordless device-bound authentication. This addresses the stated need to allow an enrolled managed client to authenticate with device-bound biometric or PIN credentials without substituting a different control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Smart cards depend on certificate validation and redirection capabilities. This is relevant when the task is to support staff who must use approved certificate-backed smart cards with compatible host and client configuration; it does not directly meet the requirement to allow an enrolled managed client to authenticate with device-bound biometric or PIN credentials.

B:

Group entitlements simplify and constrain access to published resources. This is relevant when the task is to assign a department access through a directory group rather than individual app-group role grants; it does not directly meet the requirement to allow an enrolled managed client to authenticate with device-bound biometric or PIN credentials.

C:

Consistent UPN mapping supports hybrid user login. This is relevant when the task is to prevent identity mapping errors between synced corporate user and Microsoft Entra sign-in; it does not directly meet the requirement to allow an enrolled managed client to authenticate with device-bound biometric or PIN credentials.

Question 130

To meet an audited operations objective, the desktop team must notify the fleet team after a scheduled maintenance ring fails to install a required security update. Which choice is appropriate?

  1. Guest driver compatibility test
  2. Azure Monitor patch-failure alert
  3. Guest patch compliance report
  4. Image refresh after security cumulative update

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Patch results must be observable and actionable. This addresses the stated need to notify the fleet team after a scheduled maintenance ring fails to install a required security update without substituting a different control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Drivers must be compatible with the selected host VM and Windows build. This is relevant when the task is to validate image updates against GPU, printer and peripheral drivers required by user workloads; it does not directly meet the requirement to notify the fleet team after a scheduled maintenance ring fails to install a required security update.

C:

Patch assessment distinguishes installed from missing updates. This is relevant when the task is to identify hosts that missed a scheduled Windows cumulative update without incorrectly treating all hosts as current; it does not directly meet the requirement to notify the fleet team after a scheduled maintenance ring fails to install a required security update.

D:

Refreshing base images avoids leaving deployed clones with old baseline patches. This is relevant when the task is to create a new approved gallery version containing current Windows security updates; it does not directly meet the requirement to notify the fleet team after a scheduled maintenance ring fails to install a required security update.


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