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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 36

Question 350

A litigation team needs to preserve data for custodians so later deletions cannot destroy evidence. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Use separate eDiscovery cases with appropriate case member permissions.
  2. Create an eDiscovery case and run a scoped content search.
  3. Place the relevant custodial content on a supported eDiscovery hold.
  4. Search supported Copilot interaction records within eDiscovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Hold preserves covered content for legal collection. This directly addresses litigation preservation before review.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Case segregation controls evidence scope and reviewer authority. This helps with distinct legal matter boundaries instead of the required litigation preservation before review.

B:

eDiscovery identifies responsive records using case search conditions. The action is relevant to targeted email discovery rather than litigation preservation before review.

D:

AI interactions can be subject to discovery using supported item types. The action is relevant to litigation search across AI conversations rather than litigation preservation before review.

Question 351

An employee claims Copilot never ran at the time listed in a security alert. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Search applicable Exchange mailbox and unified audit records.
  2. Configure appropriate alerting and investigation processes over supported audit signals.
  3. Search Purview Audit for the relevant site permission event.
  4. Check supported Copilot interaction audit events and timestamps.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

AI interaction audit records provide relevant usage evidence. This directly addresses time evidence of Copilot activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Audit events can expose rule modifications and the acting principal. It is used for historical mailbox-rule mutation evidence; this scenario calls for time evidence of Copilot activity.

B:

Monitoring converts historical event data into actionable detection. That addresses timely reaction to concerning activity, whereas the current case requires time evidence of Copilot activity.

C:

Audit event records attribute supported administrative operations. It is used for actor for an access-permission change; this scenario calls for time evidence of Copilot activity.

Question 352

A sensitive record is due for disposal but law requires approval before permanent deletion. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Use a retention label with disposition review.
  2. Investigate the DLP alert and document corrective actions.
  3. Update its Compliance Manager assessment and evidence.
  4. Initiate a site access review for the site owner.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Disposition review inserts accountable review into content deletion. This directly addresses approved records destruction.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Alert casework supports remediation beyond a simple block. Its purpose is governed data incident follow-up; the specified need is approved records destruction.

C:

Assessment tasks track required control maturity and remediation. It would support recurring regulatory assessment, not the stated approved records destruction.

D:

Site owners can confirm needed access without security staff guessing business relationships. Its purpose is owner-driven oversharing remediation; the specified need is approved records destruction.

Question 353

A company wants visibility into employee AI app adoption alongside risk from sensitive sharing. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Apply a supported Purview DLP rule for sensitive AI interactions.
  2. Use DSPM for AI usage and risk dashboards.
  3. Search authorized Copilot audit and interaction activity evidence.
  4. Correct the source SharePoint access control and sharing links.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

AI posture reporting combines supported usage patterns with sensitive data findings. This directly addresses AI adoption-associated data risk context.

Incorrect Answers

A:

AI-aware DLP can inspect and control supported content exchanges. The action is relevant to sensitive prompt leakage prevention rather than AI adoption-associated data risk context.

C:

Auditing provides user and time attribution for supported AI interactions. The action is relevant to traceable sensitive Copilot activity rather than AI adoption-associated data risk context.

D:

AI grounding respects effective source permissions; oversharing is a source governance fault. This helps with prevention of unauthorized AI source discovery instead of the required AI adoption-associated data risk context.

Question 354

Communication Compliance flags discriminatory language in a group chat. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Keep the relevant content preserved under its active hold.
  2. Open the relevant DLP alert and rule-match details.
  3. Assign the alert to an authorized communications reviewer.
  4. Open a relevant Insider Risk Management case and review indicators.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Reviewers assess policy context and document their disposition. This directly addresses conduct violation assessment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hold requirements prevent loss of evidence despite ordinary deletion schedules. That addresses hold-compliant preservation, whereas the current case requires conduct violation assessment.

B:

DLP activity captures the rule and destination context for a violation. It is used for file-sharing policy incident evidence; this scenario calls for conduct violation assessment.

D:

Insider risk contextualizes configured user behavior for triage. It is used for suspicious worker file-exfiltration investigation; this scenario calls for conduct violation assessment.

Question 355

A legal team wants to locate files referencing trade secrets that have no stable numeric pattern. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Configure an exact data match classifier with its secured reference data.
  2. Use a supported document fingerprint in Purview classification.
  3. Explore relevant Purview sensitive information type reporting.
  4. Use a suitable trainable classifier where licensed and validated.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Semantic classification can identify document themes beyond fixed patterns. This directly addresses discovery of unstructured trade secret content.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EDM identifies values known to belong to the protected dataset. Its purpose is precise matching of known customer IDs; the specified need is discovery of unstructured trade secret content.

B:

Document fingerprints match against a reference form structure. It would support recognition of standard legal forms, not the stated discovery of unstructured trade secret content.

C:

Content classification reports where structured sensitive data is found. Its purpose is discovery of structured financial identifiers; the specified need is discovery of unstructured trade secret content.

Question 356

The company decides a sensitive site must be accessible only to a named employee group. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Enforce SharePoint restricted access control where eligible.
  2. Configure supported Purview lifecycle retention for AI interactions.
  3. Review Insider Risk Management trends and reports.
  4. Review SharePoint data access governance activity reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

RAC adds a site-level group boundary above ordinary link permissions. This directly addresses hard restriction of a high-risk site.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Retention policies are controls rather than just reports. The action is relevant to mandatory preservation of AI interaction data rather than hard restriction of a high-risk site.

C:

Aggregated risk reporting describes activity patterns without changing access. This helps with trend monitoring of insider-risk alerts instead of the required hard restriction of a high-risk site.

D:

Sharing reports reveal potentially overshared sites and trends. The action is relevant to broad link-exposure risk identification rather than hard restriction of a high-risk site.

Question 357

An accidental external payment-file email needs a data exposure case. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Use Communication Compliance review and escalation.
  2. Use Purview DLP alert investigation.
  3. Investigate an Insider Risk Management case.
  4. Use Purview eDiscovery case search and legal preservation tools.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

DLP incidents show sensitive data matches and policy enforcement. This directly addresses investigation of sensitive document transfer.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Communication Compliance handles supported workplace conduct messages. It is used for review of harmful employee messages; this scenario calls for investigation of sensitive document transfer.

C:

Insider-risk evidence combines configured user-activity risk signals. It is used for insider-driven exfiltration case; this scenario calls for investigation of sensitive document transfer.

D:

eDiscovery organizes litigation-related content finding and holding. That addresses formal legal evidence collection, whereas the current case requires investigation of sensitive document transfer.

Question 358

A data officer wants to know which sensitive information types occur in Copilot prompts. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Investigate a relevant Communication Compliance or DLP alert as appropriate.
  2. Use a suitable Purview Compliance Manager assessment.
  3. Review DSPM for AI classification and interaction insights.
  4. Search supported Copilot interaction items in Purview eDiscovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

AI-specific signals can surface use of protected data categories. This directly addresses classified information used during AI interactions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Content policy and data-loss alerts address different violation classes. It would support AI-related communication policy triage, not the stated classified information used during AI interactions.

B:

Compliance Manager supports framework-mapped control review and improvements. Its purpose is assessment of AI-relevant compliance duties; the specified need is classified information used during AI interactions.

D:

eDiscovery can retrieve supported recorded AI interactions for cases. Its purpose is legally responsive Copilot conversations; the specified need is classified information used during AI interactions.

Question 359

A departing employee copies an unusual volume of internal files to personal storage. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Review the Communication Compliance policy alert.
  2. Open Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager assessments.
  3. Explore relevant sensitive-data inventory in Microsoft Purview classification tools.
  4. Investigate the relevant Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management alert.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Insider risk focuses on configured risky behavior by trusted users. This directly addresses suspected malicious insider activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Communication Compliance is designed for supported conduct and policy review of messages. The action is relevant to problematic workplace messages rather than suspected malicious insider activity.

B:

Compliance Manager organizes compliance-control assessments and improvement tasks. This helps with framework evidence and control tracking instead of the required suspected malicious insider activity.

C:

Content classification discovery identifies data locations and matched types. The action is relevant to locating sensitive identity data rather than suspected malicious insider activity.

Question 360

Auditors want to see progress over time as remediation actions are completed. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Review assessment status and improvement action progress.
  2. Create a Compliance Manager assessment using the relevant regulation.
  3. Attach supporting evidence to the appropriate Compliance Manager improvement action.
  4. Review responsibility assignments within the Compliance Manager assessment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Compliance Manager tracks completion and corresponding assessment status. This directly addresses regulatory readiness progress.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Assessment templates map controls to a selected framework. It is used for regulation-specific control assessment; this scenario calls for regulatory readiness progress.

C:

Improvement actions can track implementation evidence for assessment controls. That addresses documented proof of a compliance control, whereas the current case requires regulatory readiness progress.

D:

The assessment assigns responsibility for relevant controls. It is used for responsibility partition for assessed controls; this scenario calls for regulatory readiness progress.


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