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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 33

Question 320

An application requires an immediate authenticated workflow execution rather than retrieving indexed text. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Configure supported connector synchronization for relevant updates.
  2. Use a permissioned live API or tool rather than only a search connector.
  3. Configure an approved Graph connector with accurate item ACL mappings.
  4. Repair connector ACL ingestion and reindex the affected content.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Runtime operations are distinct from search grounding over indexed material. This directly addresses live action against a business system.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Connector refresh keeps indexed items aligned with source changes. This helps with up-to-date external search index instead of the required live action against a business system.

C:

Indexed external items must carry permissions so results can be security trimmed. This helps with secure retrieval of connected external content instead of the required live action against a business system.

D:

Missing ACL mapping can lead to unintended search exposure. The action is relevant to corrected external item authorization rather than live action against a business system.

Question 321

A user asks for a summary of a document and security wants to ensure no app bypasses its access controls. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Inspect the document's Purview sensitivity label and permissions.
  2. Review appropriate DSPM for AI interaction or DLP signals.
  3. Enforce authorization at Microsoft 365 content storage and retrieval.
  4. Apply applicable endpoint or AI DLP controls where supported.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Controls on the underlying source govern what data a user can access. This directly addresses consistent source access enforcement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File labels provide authoritative classification state for retrieved work content. It is used for source-document classification evidence; this scenario calls for consistent source access enforcement.

B:

AI security telemetry can identify supported sensitive data interaction patterns. That addresses detection of sensitive prompt content, whereas the current case requires consistent source access enforcement.

D:

DLP can govern sensitive data handling in supported interactions and endpoints. That addresses restriction of classified generated content movement, whereas the current case requires consistent source access enforcement.

Question 322

An AI posture assessment identifies a tenant-wide spike in risky AI interactions. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Narrow SharePoint permissions to the approved finance group.
  2. Apply an approved sensitivity label with file-level protection.
  3. Investigate the matched message and enforce the appropriate DLP policy.
  4. Review DSPM for AI findings and implement its relevant mitigation recommendations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DSPM for AI consolidates AI exposure findings and control opportunities. This directly addresses AI-related data exposure reduction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Correcting excessive authorization closes both direct and Copilot discovery paths. It would support removal of internal oversharing, not the stated AI-related data exposure reduction.

B:

Rights protection travels with the content when supported. Its purpose is persistent financial-file control; the specified need is AI-related data exposure reduction.

C:

Data loss prevention provides incident context and prevention actions. It would support outbound sensitive-mail incident response, not the stated AI-related data exposure reduction.

Question 323

An automated action could irreversibly delete customer accounts without review. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Add human approval and a recoverable operational design.
  2. Reduce the tool's returned fields to the minimum required.
  3. Provide transparent disclosure of AI assistance and limitations.
  4. Document the lawful purpose, retention and access design with privacy stakeholders.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Human control mitigates high-impact automation risks. This directly addresses accountable irreversible account deletion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Data minimization limits personal data processing for the task. This helps with least-data disclosure by an AI tool instead of the required accountable irreversible account deletion.

C:

Responsible AI transparency avoids misleading users about the system. The action is relevant to informed AI output interpretation rather than accountable irreversible account deletion.

D:

Purpose limitation and governance constrain sensitive processing. This helps with accountable processing of customer information instead of the required accountable irreversible account deletion.

Question 324

Security wants to know the actual activities where users interact with AI applications, not just access grants. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Review and remove unauthorized anonymous sharing on that file.
  2. Review relevant Purview AI activity explorer events.
  3. Audit and restrict group permissions on the source.
  4. Check effective user site permissions and source availability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

AI activity telemetry records supported user interactions and classifications. This directly addresses observational AI usage evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Anonymous links may create an unintended access path beyond tenant membership. That addresses closure of public sharing exposure, whereas the current case requires observational AI usage evidence.

C:

Access control defects are not fixed by changing a prompt alone. That addresses stopping unintended broad directory access, whereas the current case requires observational AI usage evidence.

D:

A user cannot ground answers in inaccessible tenant files. It is used for diagnosing absent authorized source; this scenario calls for observational AI usage evidence.

Question 325

A regulator asks the company to document control evidence against an established compliance framework. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Review the Communication Compliance policy alert.
  2. Open Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager assessments.
  3. Explore relevant sensitive-data inventory in Microsoft Purview classification tools.
  4. Investigate the relevant Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management alert.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Compliance Manager organizes compliance-control assessments and improvement tasks. This directly addresses framework evidence and control tracking.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Communication Compliance is designed for supported conduct and policy review of messages. Its purpose is problematic workplace messages; the specified need is framework evidence and control tracking.

C:

Content classification discovery identifies data locations and matched types. Its purpose is locating sensitive identity data; the specified need is framework evidence and control tracking.

D:

Insider risk focuses on configured risky behavior by trusted users. It would support suspected malicious insider activity, not the stated framework evidence and control tracking.

Question 326

A compliance lead needs to link an auditor's control to its implementation and supporting screenshots or records. Which action should the team take?

  1. Review assessment status and improvement action progress.
  2. Create a Compliance Manager assessment using the relevant regulation.
  3. Attach supporting evidence to the appropriate Compliance Manager improvement action.
  4. Review responsibility assignments within the Compliance Manager assessment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Improvement actions can track implementation evidence for assessment controls. This directly addresses documented proof of a compliance control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compliance Manager tracks completion and corresponding assessment status. This helps with regulatory readiness progress instead of the required documented proof of a compliance control.

B:

Assessment templates map controls to a selected framework. The action is relevant to regulation-specific control assessment rather than documented proof of a compliance control.

D:

The assessment assigns responsibility for relevant controls. The action is relevant to responsibility partition for assessed controls rather than documented proof of a compliance control.

Question 327

An information protection officer needs a list of locations where a sensitive information type was detected. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Query Purview Activity explorer for label-change events.
  2. Use DSPM for AI activity and risk reports for supported interactions.
  3. Run an authorized Purview eDiscovery content search.
  4. Review Purview Content explorer or supported data classification views.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Data classification inventory identifies matching content in covered workloads. This directly addresses discovery of stored sensitive content.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Activity explorer records supported label events and associated actors. It is used for activity behind an actual label downgrade; this scenario calls for discovery of stored sensitive content.

B:

AI posture telemetry identifies sensitive-data use in AI applications. That addresses sensitive information in AI prompts, whereas the current case requires discovery of stored sensitive content.

C:

eDiscovery search selects responsive content for a case. It is used for litigation-driven content collection; this scenario calls for discovery of stored sensitive content.

Question 328

Security suspects an employee downloaded a sensitive file collection shortly before leaving the company. Which action should the team take?

  1. Open an Insider Risk Management case with the relevant indicators.
  2. Keep supported pseudonymization and reviewer-role controls in place.
  3. Tune permitted exclusions, indicators and thresholds after documented review.
  4. Document and close the insider risk case appropriately.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Insider risk correlates configured risky user actions. This directly addresses suspected departing-employee exfiltration.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Privacy-aware insider risk limits exposed personal identity data during triage. Its purpose is privacy-protecting investigation; the specified need is suspected departing-employee exfiltration.

C:

Policy tuning reduces known benign matches without disabling relevant risk detection. It would support fewer false-positive user-risk cases, not the stated suspected departing-employee exfiltration.

D:

Case closure records the disposition and investigator rationale. Its purpose is auditable disposition of employee-risk alert; the specified need is suspected departing-employee exfiltration.

Question 329

A DLP policy blocked an outgoing spreadsheet because it matched a credit-card sensitive information type. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Use the DLP incident response process with relevant alerts and case assignment.
  2. Inspect the DLP alert and matched rule evidence.
  3. Use supported DLP test or simulation mode.
  4. Apply a reviewed DLP exception or permitted justification within policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Alert details identify the sensitive type, location and enforcement reason. This directly addresses evidence for a sensitive outbound email block.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DLP monitoring supports accountable follow-up on repeated violations. The action is relevant to repeated data-loss incident response rather than evidence for a sensitive outbound email block.

C:

Simulated matches allow validation before production enforcement. The action is relevant to impact testing of a new DLP rule rather than evidence for a sensitive outbound email block.

D:

Governed exceptions avoid weakening protection for all users. This helps with narrowly authorized protected-data sharing instead of the required evidence for a sensitive outbound email block.

Question 330

A Teams message containing threats was flagged under a workplace misconduct policy. Which action should the team take?

  1. Record the review outcome and escalation in the Communication Compliance case workflow.
  2. Assign appropriately scoped Communication Compliance reviewer roles.
  3. Review the flagged communication in Purview Communication Compliance.
  4. Refine the Communication Compliance policy classification and conditions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Communication Compliance surfaces supported risky messages to authorized reviewers. This directly addresses conduct-related Teams message review.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review dispositions preserve a decision trail for policy violations. That addresses accountable escalation of flagged messages, whereas the current case requires conduct-related Teams message review.

B:

Role-controlled review limits access to sensitive conversation content. It is used for protected access to communications investigations; this scenario calls for conduct-related Teams message review.

D:

Narrower detection criteria can improve review precision. It is used for tuned employee communication policy; this scenario calls for conduct-related Teams message review.


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