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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

$79.99

CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 21

Question 200

A new privacy rule changes breach notification duties for a high-risk service. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Trigger a supplier risk review for jurisdiction, resilience and contractual impacts.
  2. Reevaluate retained financial exposure and relevant treatment choices.
  3. Trigger integrated risk review and treatment for inherited access dependencies.
  4. Update risk treatment assumptions and incident reporting arrangements with legal stakeholders.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Legal changes may affect potential impact and required controls. This directly meets the requirement to refresh risk treatment after regulatory change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Material service changes can alter the risk basis of the prior approval. That action would reassess risk after supplier location change; it does not address the case's priority to refresh risk treatment after regulatory change.

B:

Modified coverage can increase risk even when technical controls remain unchanged. It is primarily relevant when the need is to respond to changes in cyber insurance coverage, rather than to refresh risk treatment after regulatory change.

C:

New organizational connections create exposure outside the prior assessment boundary. This would help reassess risk from newly merged identities; the scenario instead requires a decision to refresh risk treatment after regulatory change.

Question 201

A treatment saves money in one unit but increases enterprise-wide shared service exposure. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Evaluate cross-unit consequences and enterprise-level net risk before approval.
  2. Revisit the business case and compare alternative treatment or informed acceptance.
  3. Compare choices using sensitivity and scenario ranges rather than a false exact ROI.
  4. Separate insurable financial costs from nontransferable regulatory and operational obligations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Local savings can be offset by correlated business losses elsewhere. This directly meets the requirement to optimize treatment for enterprise risk.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Risk response should be proportionate, subject to legal and risk appetite constraints. It is primarily relevant when the need is to challenge disproportionate treatment spending, rather than to optimize treatment for enterprise risk.

C:

Decision quality improves when uncertain exposure and costs are transparent. This would help evaluate investment under uncertain risk losses; the scenario instead requires a decision to optimize treatment for enterprise risk.

D:

Economic transfer cannot replace compliance or management accountability. That action would account for nontransferable risk consequences; it does not address the case's priority to optimize treatment for enterprise risk.

Question 202

A minor accepted design deviation lies within delegated appetite and costs more to eliminate than exposure. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Avoid the risk by ending the exposure-producing activity.
  2. Document informed risk acceptance by the authorized business owner.
  3. Mitigate the risk through targeted control improvements and verified monitoring.
  4. Transfer a defined share of financial consequences while managing retained obligations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Acceptance is valid only with accountable approval and understood residual exposure. This directly meets the requirement to accept a proportionate residual risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Avoidance removes the activity creating the risk rather than merely reducing severity. That action would select risk avoidance for an unacceptable activity; it does not address the case's priority to accept a proportionate residual risk.

C:

Mitigation lowers likelihood or impact while continuing the business service. This would help reduce an ongoing business risk; the scenario instead requires a decision to accept a proportionate residual risk.

D:

Contractual transfer reallocates some loss without eliminating enterprise responsibility. That action would distinguish risk sharing from risk elimination; it does not address the case's priority to accept a proportionate residual risk.

Question 203

An accepted high-risk exception remains active after the deadline with no review. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Escalate beyond local authority with documented consequences and proposed options.
  2. Provide a clear scenario, residual exposure and alternatives before recording acceptance.
  3. Revalidate or close the acceptance through an approved time-bound reassessment.
  4. Obtain documented acceptance from the proper accountable business risk owner.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Acceptance is not indefinite permission to retain unexamined exposure. This directly meets the requirement to review expired risk acceptance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Excess-tolerance risk decisions belong to the formally designated governance authority. That action would escalate residual risk beyond tolerance; it does not address the case's priority to review expired risk acceptance.

B:

Meaningful acceptance requires informed decisions and traceable analysis. It is primarily relevant when the need is to make risk acceptance informed, rather than to review expired risk acceptance.

D:

Authority follows enterprise risk delegation rather than technical administration rights. That action would secure valid high-risk acceptance; it does not address the case's priority to review expired risk acceptance.

Question 204

A provider cannot meet the organization's required recovery time and proposes only service credits. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Agree on timed remediation, interim safeguards and explicit residual-risk ownership.
  2. Escalate due diligence and evaluate alternative services or authorized contractual restrictions.
  3. Negotiate relevant assurance, evidence access and remediation obligations.
  4. Require feasible continuity safeguards or select a provider with appropriate capability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Financial compensation cannot restore a critical interrupted business process. This directly meets the requirement to treat supplier availability risk at source.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Measured treatment limits exposure during a constrained service transition. That action would manage interim risk for a critical supplier; it does not address the case's priority to treat supplier availability risk at source.

B:

Undisclosed onward processing can prevent required assurance and lawful oversight. It is primarily relevant when the need is to resolve opaque fourth-party supplier exposure, rather than to treat supplier availability risk at source.

C:

Ongoing control verification requires enforceable access to supplier assurance. This would help add verifiable supplier security obligations; the scenario instead requires a decision to treat supplier availability risk at source.

Question 205

An outsourced service owner assumes the supplier now owns all regulatory consequences. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Document customer-retained obligations and control responsibilities in the risk agreement.
  2. Assign accountability to the business process owner with decision rights and record supporting custodians.
  3. Transfer ownership to the relevant business management while security maintains coordination and challenge.
  4. Record a treatment owner, due date, funding authority and verification criteria.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Contracts rarely eliminate the customer's governance and legal responsibility. This directly meets the requirement to retain accountability for outsourced risk.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Technical operators advise, while business risk ownership follows the value at stake. It is primarily relevant when the need is to clarify ownership of cloud business risk, rather than to retain accountability for outsourced risk.

C:

Central coordination does not replace business accountability. This would help avoid centralizing all business risk acceptance in security; the scenario instead requires a decision to retain accountability for outsourced risk.

D:

Assigned accountability makes risk action trackable rather than aspirational. That action would assign risk treatment accountability; it does not address the case's priority to retain accountability for outsourced risk.

Question 206

Several treatment projects compete for the same constrained engineering team. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Implement immediate approved compensating protection and schedule permanent remediation.
  2. Prioritize work by risk reduction, dependencies, deadlines and resource feasibility.
  3. Verify production implementation against the defined target asset scope before closure.
  4. Define risk-based requirements and measurable treatment outcomes before tool selection.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Treatment sequencing maximizes material exposure reduction under capacity limits. This directly meets the requirement to sequence a constrained risk mitigation portfolio.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Staged treatment lowers exposure while preserving safe business change. That action would treat an actively exploited vulnerability promptly; it does not address the case's priority to sequence a constrained risk mitigation portfolio.

C:

Treatment claims must match where exposure actually exists. This would help substantiate mitigation coverage; the scenario instead requires a decision to sequence a constrained risk mitigation portfolio.

D:

Clear treatment objectives connect technology choice to the threat and business consequence. That action would design mitigation around an actual risk scenario; it does not address the case's priority to sequence a constrained risk mitigation portfolio.

Question 207

A risk committee asks why exposure increased after a new monitoring capability launched. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Summarize material scenarios, affected services, residual exposure and decision requests.
  2. Recalibrate criteria before combining ratings in one executive risk dashboard.
  3. Explain measurement scope changes and actual threat trends separately.
  4. Include treatment options, accountable owners and milestones in the escalation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Better detection may reveal previously hidden risk without creating new exposure. This directly meets the requirement to distinguish improved visibility from rising risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Governance stakeholders need business implications to direct risk response. That action would communicate meaningful cyber risk to the board; it does not address the case's priority to distinguish improved visibility from rising risk.

B:

Inconsistent scales create false comparisons and misprioritization. It is primarily relevant when the need is to ensure comparable enterprise risk reporting, rather than to distinguish improved visibility from rising risk.

D:

Decision-ready risk reporting connects exposure with a manageable response plan. That action would make red-risk reporting actionable; it does not address the case's priority to distinguish improved visibility from rising risk.

Question 208

A security investment reduces a minor vulnerability but exposes a critical service to outage during rollout. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Commission proportionate post-implementation assurance against documented risk outcomes.
  2. Set priority based on business exposure and treatment effectiveness, not ticket count.
  3. Align the response with funded program planning and accountable sponsorship.
  4. Apply change and continuity risk assessment before deployment approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Treatments themselves can introduce risk that should be managed proportionately. This directly meets the requirement to account for treatment-induced operational risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Independent evidence tests whether investments actually reduced their target exposure. That action would validate strategic mitigation results; it does not address the case's priority to account for treatment-induced operational risk.

B:

Closure statistics can distort effort when not tied to residual risk. It is primarily relevant when the need is to focus treatment on material exposure, rather than to account for treatment-induced operational risk.

C:

Authorized mitigation must have resources to move from decision into execution. This would help fund approved risk treatment; the scenario instead requires a decision to account for treatment-induced operational risk.

Question 209

A risk register has dozens of duplicate entries describing the same root threat across teams. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Consolidate linked scenarios while retaining impacted owners and service consequences.
  2. Keep material residual risks under monitoring with periodic effectiveness reassessment.
  3. Add scenario, asset, likelihood evidence, impact, controls and accountable owner.
  4. Record versioned reassessments and date-effective ratings with approval traceability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Structured aggregation prevents duplicate work without hiding shared dependencies. This directly meets the requirement to manage redundant risk records.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Risks can return as controls and threats change, even after project closure. It is primarily relevant when the need is to sustain monitoring after risk treatment, rather than to manage redundant risk records.

C:

A complete risk record explains why an event matters to the business. This would help maintain decision-useful risk register detail; the scenario instead requires a decision to manage redundant risk records.

D:

Risk governance needs an auditable view of how evidence changed a decision. That action would preserve risk rating change history; it does not address the case's priority to manage redundant risk records.

Question 210

The number of unpatched systems falls because half the assets disappear from inventory. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Calibrate thresholds to defined risk tolerance and actionable response decisions.
  2. Reconcile denominator coverage and asset completeness before reporting improvement.
  3. Review indicator relevance after material threat changes and add new signals if needed.
  4. Establish a measurable KRI for overdue privileged access and threshold escalation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Indicator changes can reflect measurement gaps instead of true reduction. This directly meets the requirement to protect risk metrics against denominator distortion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Monitoring is useful when boundary breaches trigger meaningful ownership and action. That action would tie risk triggers to appetite; it does not address the case's priority to protect risk metrics against denominator distortion.

C:

Risk indicators require adjustment when their assumptions stop representing exposure. This would help adapt risk monitoring to emerging threats; the scenario instead requires a decision to protect risk metrics against denominator distortion.

D:

Leading indicators flag deteriorating control conditions before incident loss occurs. That action would monitor privileged access risk through KRIs; it does not address the case's priority to protect risk metrics against denominator distortion.


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