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Isaca CISM Premium Bundle
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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

$79.99

CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 20

Question 190

A cloud administrator reports exposure but IT and product leaders both refuse to own it. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Record a treatment owner, due date, funding authority and verification criteria.
  2. Assign accountability to the business process owner with decision rights and record supporting custodians.
  3. Document customer-retained obligations and control responsibilities in the risk agreement.
  4. Transfer ownership to the relevant business management while security maintains coordination and challenge.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Technical operators advise, while business risk ownership follows the value at stake. This directly meets the requirement to clarify ownership of cloud business risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assigned accountability makes risk action trackable rather than aspirational. That action would assign risk treatment accountability; it does not address the case's priority to clarify ownership of cloud business risk.

C:

Contracts rarely eliminate the customer's governance and legal responsibility. This would help retain accountability for outsourced risk; the scenario instead requires a decision to clarify ownership of cloud business risk.

D:

Central coordination does not replace business accountability. That action would avoid centralizing all business risk acceptance in security; it does not address the case's priority to clarify ownership of cloud business risk.

Question 191

Risk mitigation is planned but the accountable owner is not assigned. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Assign accountability to the business process owner with decision rights and record supporting custodians.
  2. Transfer ownership to the relevant business management while security maintains coordination and challenge.
  3. Record a treatment owner, due date, funding authority and verification criteria.
  4. Document customer-retained obligations and control responsibilities in the risk agreement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Assigned accountability makes risk action trackable rather than aspirational. This directly meets the requirement to assign risk treatment accountability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Technical operators advise, while business risk ownership follows the value at stake. That action would clarify ownership of cloud business risk; it does not address the case's priority to assign risk treatment accountability.

B:

Central coordination does not replace business accountability. It is primarily relevant when the need is to avoid centralizing all business risk acceptance in security, rather than to assign risk treatment accountability.

D:

Contracts rarely eliminate the customer's governance and legal responsibility. That action would retain accountability for outsourced risk; it does not address the case's priority to assign risk treatment accountability.

Question 192

A risk record lists a threat but not the vulnerable asset or affected objective. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Record versioned reassessments and date-effective ratings with approval traceability.
  2. Consolidate linked scenarios while retaining impacted owners and service consequences.
  3. Keep material residual risks under monitoring with periodic effectiveness reassessment.
  4. Add scenario, asset, likelihood evidence, impact, controls and accountable owner.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A complete risk record explains why an event matters to the business. This directly meets the requirement to maintain decision-useful risk register detail.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risk governance needs an auditable view of how evidence changed a decision. That action would preserve risk rating change history; it does not address the case's priority to maintain decision-useful risk register detail.

B:

Structured aggregation prevents duplicate work without hiding shared dependencies. It is primarily relevant when the need is to manage redundant risk records, rather than to maintain decision-useful risk register detail.

C:

Risks can return as controls and threats change, even after project closure. This would help sustain monitoring after risk treatment; the scenario instead requires a decision to maintain decision-useful risk register detail.

Question 193

A service provider promises 99.99% uptime but the business cannot tolerate an hour-long outage. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Compare contractual remedies and actual recovery capability to business continuity requirements.
  2. Assess enforceability, limits and the supplier's ability to satisfy the obligation.
  3. Evaluate remaining operational, reputational and uncovered losses despite insurance.
  4. Define retained obligations, response duties and reporting across the partners.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Service credits are not equivalent to meeting the business's recovery tolerance. This directly meets the requirement to assess service agreement transfer limitations.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Contract language may provide little actual loss recovery if counterparty capacity is weak. It is primarily relevant when the need is to test effectiveness of contractual risk transfer, rather than to assess service agreement transfer limitations.

C:

Insurance can reimburse specified losses but does not restore service or eliminate regulatory duty. This would help evaluate residual exposure after insurance; the scenario instead requires a decision to assess service agreement transfer limitations.

D:

Shared execution requires explicit controls for duties that cannot be transferred away. That action would manage shared venture incident responsibility; it does not address the case's priority to assess service agreement transfer limitations.

Question 194

A supplier contract includes an indemnity clause but the supplier lacks financial capacity to pay. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Define retained obligations, response duties and reporting across the partners.
  2. Assess enforceability, limits and the supplier's ability to satisfy the obligation.
  3. Compare contractual remedies and actual recovery capability to business continuity requirements.
  4. Evaluate remaining operational, reputational and uncovered losses despite insurance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Contract language may provide little actual loss recovery if counterparty capacity is weak. This directly meets the requirement to test effectiveness of contractual risk transfer.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared execution requires explicit controls for duties that cannot be transferred away. That action would manage shared venture incident responsibility; it does not address the case's priority to test effectiveness of contractual risk transfer.

C:

Service credits are not equivalent to meeting the business's recovery tolerance. This would help assess service agreement transfer limitations; the scenario instead requires a decision to test effectiveness of contractual risk transfer.

D:

Insurance can reimburse specified losses but does not restore service or eliminate regulatory duty. That action would evaluate residual exposure after insurance; it does not address the case's priority to test effectiveness of contractual risk transfer.

Question 195

A report compares two departments using different likelihood scales. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Explain measurement scope changes and actual threat trends separately.
  2. Include treatment options, accountable owners and milestones in the escalation.
  3. Recalibrate criteria before combining ratings in one executive risk dashboard.
  4. Summarize material scenarios, affected services, residual exposure and decision requests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inconsistent scales create false comparisons and misprioritization. This directly meets the requirement to ensure comparable enterprise risk reporting.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Better detection may reveal previously hidden risk without creating new exposure. That action would distinguish improved visibility from rising risk; it does not address the case's priority to ensure comparable enterprise risk reporting.

B:

Decision-ready risk reporting connects exposure with a manageable response plan. It is primarily relevant when the need is to make red-risk reporting actionable, rather than to ensure comparable enterprise risk reporting.

D:

Governance stakeholders need business implications to direct risk response. That action would communicate meaningful cyber risk to the board; it does not address the case's priority to ensure comparable enterprise risk reporting.

Question 196

An insurer updates coverage exclusions following a major market event. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Update risk treatment assumptions and incident reporting arrangements with legal stakeholders.
  2. Trigger integrated risk review and treatment for inherited access dependencies.
  3. Trigger a supplier risk review for jurisdiction, resilience and contractual impacts.
  4. Reevaluate retained financial exposure and relevant treatment choices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Modified coverage can increase risk even when technical controls remain unchanged. This directly meets the requirement to respond to changes in cyber insurance coverage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Legal changes may affect potential impact and required controls. That action would refresh risk treatment after regulatory change; it does not address the case's priority to respond to changes in cyber insurance coverage.

B:

New organizational connections create exposure outside the prior assessment boundary. It is primarily relevant when the need is to reassess risk from newly merged identities, rather than to respond to changes in cyber insurance coverage.

C:

Material service changes can alter the risk basis of the prior approval. This would help reassess risk after supplier location change; the scenario instead requires a decision to respond to changes in cyber insurance coverage.

Question 197

A third-party service handles regulated records but contract lacks audit rights. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Negotiate relevant assurance, evidence access and remediation obligations.
  2. Require feasible continuity safeguards or select a provider with appropriate capability.
  3. Escalate due diligence and evaluate alternative services or authorized contractual restrictions.
  4. Agree on timed remediation, interim safeguards and explicit residual-risk ownership.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Ongoing control verification requires enforceable access to supplier assurance. This directly meets the requirement to add verifiable supplier security obligations.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Financial compensation cannot restore a critical interrupted business process. It is primarily relevant when the need is to treat supplier availability risk at source, rather than to add verifiable supplier security obligations.

C:

Undisclosed onward processing can prevent required assurance and lawful oversight. This would help resolve opaque fourth-party supplier exposure; the scenario instead requires a decision to add verifiable supplier security obligations.

D:

Measured treatment limits exposure during a constrained service transition. That action would manage interim risk for a critical supplier; it does not address the case's priority to add verifiable supplier security obligations.

Question 198

An executive approves a risk response but the implementation project lacks a funding source. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Set priority based on business exposure and treatment effectiveness, not ticket count.
  2. Align the response with funded program planning and accountable sponsorship.
  3. Apply change and continuity risk assessment before deployment approval.
  4. Commission proportionate post-implementation assurance against documented risk outcomes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Authorized mitigation must have resources to move from decision into execution. This directly meets the requirement to fund approved risk treatment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Closure statistics can distort effort when not tied to residual risk. That action would focus treatment on material exposure; it does not address the case's priority to fund approved risk treatment.

C:

Treatments themselves can introduce risk that should be managed proportionately. This would help account for treatment-induced operational risk; the scenario instead requires a decision to fund approved risk treatment.

D:

Independent evidence tests whether investments actually reduced their target exposure. That action would validate strategic mitigation results; it does not address the case's priority to fund approved risk treatment.

Question 199

An accepted deviation is implemented with an untested compensating process. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Assess residual attack paths and control effectiveness after MFA rollout.
  2. Test the end-to-end detection and response workflow before updating residual risk.
  3. Verify the compensating process against its specific risk scenario and failure modes.
  4. Require evidence that the risk condition changed and document reassessed residual exposure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Residual risk depends on whether the alternative genuinely changes exposure. This directly meets the requirement to confirm compensating control effectiveness.

Incorrect Answers

A:

MFA reduces some likelihood but does not eliminate session theft or every bypass. That action would evaluate residual identity compromise risk; it does not address the case's priority to confirm compensating control effectiveness.

B:

Design and installation alone do not establish operating effectiveness. It is primarily relevant when the need is to verify end-to-end effectiveness of a risk control, rather than to confirm compensating control effectiveness.

D:

Administrative completion does not prove that risk was reduced to tolerance. That action would close risk only with outcome evidence; it does not address the case's priority to confirm compensating control effectiveness.

Question 200

A new privacy rule changes breach notification duties for a high-risk service. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Trigger a supplier risk review for jurisdiction, resilience and contractual impacts.
  2. Reevaluate retained financial exposure and relevant treatment choices.
  3. Trigger integrated risk review and treatment for inherited access dependencies.
  4. Update risk treatment assumptions and incident reporting arrangements with legal stakeholders.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Legal changes may affect potential impact and required controls. This directly meets the requirement to refresh risk treatment after regulatory change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Material service changes can alter the risk basis of the prior approval. That action would reassess risk after supplier location change; it does not address the case's priority to refresh risk treatment after regulatory change.

B:

Modified coverage can increase risk even when technical controls remain unchanged. It is primarily relevant when the need is to respond to changes in cyber insurance coverage, rather than to refresh risk treatment after regulatory change.

C:

New organizational connections create exposure outside the prior assessment boundary. This would help reassess risk from newly merged identities; the scenario instead requires a decision to refresh risk treatment after regulatory change.


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