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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

$79.99

CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 15

Question 140

An endpoint protection project is installed but devices are silently excluded from its policy. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Assess both control design and actual operating effectiveness using evidence.
  2. Map its protective mechanism to the identified scenario and residual risk.
  3. Obtain independent evidence or representative performance tests for the control.
  4. Verify coverage, enrollment and actual control outcomes across the asset population.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A control may operate as designed only on part of its intended scope. This directly meets the requirement to identify hidden control coverage gaps.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Having a written control does not prove that it is performed on schedule. That action would distinguish control design from execution; it does not address the case's priority to identify hidden control coverage gaps.

B:

A compensating measure is adequate only when it changes the applicable likelihood or impact. It is primarily relevant when the need is to evaluate compensating control relevance, rather than to identify hidden control coverage gaps.

C:

Testing substantiates claims that would otherwise bias the risk estimate. This would help independently test high-risk control performance; the scenario instead requires a decision to identify hidden control coverage gaps.

Question 141

A hybrid service uses private endpoints but relies on internet-exposed administrator credentials. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Model identity and privileged-access attack paths independent of network location.
  2. Assess common-mode dependencies and single points of failure across security services.
  3. Evaluate data flow, classification, retention and access boundaries before migration.
  4. Reassess endpoint trust, session controls and business process exposure as one scenario.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Network isolation does not eliminate credential compromise routes. This directly meets the requirement to assess residual identity risk in hybrid architecture.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Shared controls can increase correlated impact when they fail. It is primarily relevant when the need is to evaluate concentration in security architecture, rather than to assess residual identity risk in hybrid architecture.

C:

Architecture decisions can move risk into data platforms not covered by legacy controls. This would help include information flows in architectural risk; the scenario instead requires a decision to assess residual identity risk in hybrid architecture.

D:

A changed access model creates risk that cannot be judged by the removed VPN alone. That action would assess security impact of access-model change; it does not address the case's priority to assess residual identity risk in hybrid architecture.

Question 142

An AI pilot forwards employee records to a model endpoint with unclear retention terms. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Reevaluate threat models and controls for both old and new trust assumptions.
  2. Assess data processing, purpose, vendor assurances and legal obligations before use.
  3. Assess device lifecycle, vendor support and safety consequences of compromise.
  4. Inventory cryptographic dependencies and evaluate time horizon and transition risk.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Novel AI processing can create confidentiality and secondary-use exposure. This directly meets the requirement to identify AI service data governance risks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Technology migration rarely removes every attack path by itself. That action would challenge unverified emerging-technology assurances; it does not address the case's priority to identify AI service data governance risks.

C:

Long-lived connected devices need sustainment and safe failure consideration. This would help evaluate operational IoT lifecycle risk; the scenario instead requires a decision to identify AI service data governance risks.

D:

Strategic cryptographic exposure depends on data sensitivity and expected confidentiality life. That action would assess long-duration cryptographic risk; it does not address the case's priority to identify AI service data governance risks.

Question 143

A risk owner reports risk has fallen after a control deployment without any postchange test. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Trigger risk assessment at material service and architecture changes, not only on a calendar.
  2. Reevaluate relevant exposure and controls as an event-driven risk trigger.
  3. Require evidence of implementation and effectiveness before revising residual ratings.
  4. Use monitoring thresholds and proportional reassessment intervals by criticality.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A planned control does not reduce assessed risk until it functions as intended. This directly meets the requirement to validate post-treatment risk reassessment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Change-driven reassessment captures new exposure before the next annual cycle. That action would make risk review change-responsive; it does not address the case's priority to validate post-treatment risk reassessment.

B:

Material new threat information can change residual risk immediately. It is primarily relevant when the need is to reassess risk after material vulnerability disclosure, rather than to validate post-treatment risk reassessment.

D:

Risk-based cadence focuses effort where exposure can materially change. That action would allocate assessment effort proportionately; it does not address the case's priority to validate post-treatment risk reassessment.

Question 144

A supplier subcontracts sensitive data handling to a fourth party without prior notice. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Evaluate service resilience, portability and continuity dependencies separately.
  2. Review assurance scope, exclusions, contract requirements and actual service boundaries.
  3. Assess the shared responsibility allocation and the customer's control gaps.
  4. Analyze downstream handling and contractual oversight obligations before approving the change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Subcontracting can alter exposure and reporting routes outside initial due diligence. This directly meets the requirement to assess fourth-party data handling risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Confidentiality controls cannot substitute for availability assurance. That action would assess supplier operational resilience; it does not address the case's priority to assess fourth-party data handling risk.

B:

A certificate can be useful evidence without covering every contracted activity. It is primarily relevant when the need is to validate relevance of supplier assurance, rather than to assess fourth-party data handling risk.

C:

Supplier security does not remove customer duties for configuration and access. This would help evaluate customer-retained cloud risk; the scenario instead requires a decision to assess fourth-party data handling risk.

Question 145

A scan reports hundreds of vulnerabilities but some are known false positives. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Validate material findings before committing to expensive remediation decisions.
  2. Evaluate compensating controls and time-bound residual exposure with the system owner.
  3. Prioritize by exploitability, reachability, asset importance and business impact.
  4. Assess the systemic development and configuration weakness, not only individual hosts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Independent confirmation prevents risk rankings based on inaccurate tool output. This directly meets the requirement to validate vulnerability evidence.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Risk management can stage change while controlling interim exposure. It is primarily relevant when the need is to manage unpatchable critical-system exposure, rather than to validate vulnerability evidence.

C:

Severity scores alone do not rank actual enterprise risk. This would help prioritize findings using business context; the scenario instead requires a decision to validate vulnerability evidence.

D:

Root-cause control weaknesses require process-level risk treatment. That action would analyze repeated vulnerability causes; it does not address the case's priority to validate vulnerability evidence.

Question 146

An organization repeats full assessments monthly despite no changes and limited capacity. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Reevaluate relevant exposure and controls as an event-driven risk trigger.
  2. Use monitoring thresholds and proportional reassessment intervals by criticality.
  3. Trigger risk assessment at material service and architecture changes, not only on a calendar.
  4. Require evidence of implementation and effectiveness before revising residual ratings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Risk-based cadence focuses effort where exposure can materially change. This directly meets the requirement to allocate assessment effort proportionately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Material new threat information can change residual risk immediately. That action would reassess risk after material vulnerability disclosure; it does not address the case's priority to allocate assessment effort proportionately.

C:

Change-driven reassessment captures new exposure before the next annual cycle. This would help make risk review change-responsive; the scenario instead requires a decision to allocate assessment effort proportionately.

D:

A planned control does not reduce assessed risk until it functions as intended. That action would validate post-treatment risk reassessment; it does not address the case's priority to allocate assessment effort proportionately.

Question 147

A critical system cannot be patched immediately due to patient-safety constraints. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Assess the systemic development and configuration weakness, not only individual hosts.
  2. Validate material findings before committing to expensive remediation decisions.
  3. Evaluate compensating controls and time-bound residual exposure with the system owner.
  4. Prioritize by exploitability, reachability, asset importance and business impact.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Risk management can stage change while controlling interim exposure. This directly meets the requirement to manage unpatchable critical-system exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Root-cause control weaknesses require process-level risk treatment. That action would analyze repeated vulnerability causes; it does not address the case's priority to manage unpatchable critical-system exposure.

B:

Independent confirmation prevents risk rankings based on inaccurate tool output. It is primarily relevant when the need is to validate vulnerability evidence, rather than to manage unpatchable critical-system exposure.

D:

Severity scores alone do not rank actual enterprise risk. That action would prioritize findings using business context; it does not address the case's priority to manage unpatchable critical-system exposure.

Question 148

Management demands immediate sign-off of a risk estimate disputed by the business owner. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Reconcile methodology, evidence and environment differences before declaring improvement.
  2. Seek independent inputs and document sensitivity to the uncertain assumption.
  3. Obtain independent service evidence and challenge unsupported control assumptions.
  4. Resolve scope, evidence and impact disagreements before approval or formally document escalation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Risk ownership requires informed agreement rather than paper acceptance under pressure. This directly meets the requirement to handle contested risk findings.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Apparent changes may reflect altered scoring rather than real risk reduction. That action would validate a claimed reduction in security risk; it does not address the case's priority to handle contested risk findings.

B:

Multiple perspectives help expose fragile or biased estimates. It is primarily relevant when the need is to improve reliability of uncertain risk scenarios, rather than to handle contested risk findings.

C:

Marketing claims cannot establish effective performance for a particular risk scenario. This would help validate supplier risk assumptions; the scenario instead requires a decision to handle contested risk findings.

Question 149

A department asks to assess only the firewall despite the entire payroll service being under review. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Define assessment scope around business service, information flows, dependencies and relevant threats.
  2. Identify critical information assets and business impact before detailed risk estimation.
  3. Publish documented boundaries, assumptions, exclusions and acceptance criteria for the assessment.
  4. Map data and identity dependencies across trust boundaries before completing scenarios.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Service-level scoping captures risks from people, processes, suppliers and technology. This directly meets the requirement to scope assessment to a business service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Consequence depends on asset value and the process the asset supports. It is primarily relevant when the need is to establish business context for risk analysis, rather than to scope assessment to a business service.

C:

Explicit scope enables consistent review and prevents gaps hidden by ambiguity. This would help make risk assessment scope reproducible; the scenario instead requires a decision to scope assessment to a business service.

D:

Hybrid dependencies can create exposure that no single platform assessment captures. That action would include cross-platform risk dependencies; it does not address the case's priority to scope assessment to a business service.

Question 150

A team claims use of a fashionable technology eliminates all old application threats. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Assess device lifecycle, vendor support and safety consequences of compromise.
  2. Reevaluate threat models and controls for both old and new trust assumptions.
  3. Assess data processing, purpose, vendor assurances and legal obligations before use.
  4. Inventory cryptographic dependencies and evaluate time horizon and transition risk.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Technology migration rarely removes every attack path by itself. This directly meets the requirement to challenge unverified emerging-technology assurances.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Long-lived connected devices need sustainment and safe failure consideration. That action would evaluate operational IoT lifecycle risk; it does not address the case's priority to challenge unverified emerging-technology assurances.

C:

Novel AI processing can create confidentiality and secondary-use exposure. This would help identify AI service data governance risks; the scenario instead requires a decision to challenge unverified emerging-technology assurances.

D:

Strategic cryptographic exposure depends on data sensitivity and expected confidentiality life. That action would assess long-duration cryptographic risk; it does not address the case's priority to challenge unverified emerging-technology assurances.


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