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Last Update: Oct 12, 2026

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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 3

Question 20

A device that was compliant this morning becomes unpatched at noon, yet a web service trusts its earlier VPN login forever. Which zero-trust behavior should replace that assumption?

  1. Reevaluate device and session risk at sensitive resource access
  2. Rely solely on annual security training
  3. Disable authorization after the first login
  4. Grant a permanent trusted-subnet exception

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Continuous context-aware decisions avoid treating network membership as permanent trust. Zero-trust decisions depend on resource, identity and device context, not permanent trust arising from network location; the point making a decision and the point enforcing it can be separate. The case turns on a web service trusts its earlier VPN login forever; “Reevaluate device and session risk at sensitive resource access” addresses that precise condition. “Disable authorization after the first login” is not equivalent because removing decisions allows precisely the unrestricted access at issue.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Employee education cannot update live access policy when device health changes. Written guidance and awareness influence behavior, but they do not by themselves enforce a technical or physical boundary. In the reported situation, a web service trusts its earlier VPN login forever. The effective mechanism is “Reevaluate device and session risk at sensitive resource access”: continuous context-aware decisions avoid treating network membership as permanent trust.

C:

Removing decisions allows precisely the unrestricted access at issue. The evidence is a web service trusts its earlier VPN login forever. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. By contrast, “Reevaluate device and session risk at sensitive resource access” operates on the specific concern: continuous context-aware decisions avoid treating network membership as permanent trust.

D:

Subnet location ignores the new unsafe endpoint state. Network restrictions govern allowed flows and trust boundaries, not every application-layer input or business permission. Here the decisive fact is a web service trusts its earlier VPN login forever. “Reevaluate device and session risk at sensitive resource access” matches that requirement because continuous context-aware decisions avoid treating network membership as permanent trust.

Question 21

An access architecture requires a component to decide whether a user's request meets policy, while a gateway applies that decision. Which component makes the policy decision?

  1. A file integrity monitor
  2. The application network switch
  3. The audit log collector
  4. The policy engine in the control plane

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The engine evaluates attributes and rules; enforcement happens separately at the gateway. Zero-trust decisions depend on resource, identity and device context, not permanent trust arising from network location; the point making a decision and the point enforcing it can be separate. The case turns on while a gateway applies that decision; “The policy engine in the control plane” addresses that precise condition. “The application network switch” is not equivalent because forwarding packets is not equivalent to deciding identity-dependent business policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File-change detection does not decide who may request a resource. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. Here the decisive fact is while a gateway applies that decision. “The policy engine in the control plane” matches that requirement because the engine evaluates attributes and rules; enforcement happens separately at the gateway.

B:

Forwarding packets is not equivalent to deciding identity-dependent business policy. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. In the reported situation, while a gateway applies that decision. The effective mechanism is “The policy engine in the control plane”: the engine evaluates attributes and rules; enforcement happens separately at the gateway.

C:

Logging captures outcomes but does not produce the access permit decision. The evidence is while a gateway applies that decision. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. By contrast, “The policy engine in the control plane” operates on the specific concern: the engine evaluates attributes and rules; enforcement happens separately at the gateway.

Question 22

A microsegmentation gateway terminates a session when the control plane revokes its permission. Which zero-trust component has actually enforced the change?

  1. A governance risk register
  2. A policy engine by itself
  3. Policy enforcement point in the data plane
  4. An offline vulnerability report

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The enforcement point carries out allow and deny decisions on resource traffic. For this case, a microsegmentation gateway terminates a session when the control plane revokes its permission. Zero-trust decisions depend on resource, identity and device context, not permanent trust arising from network location; the point making a decision and the point enforcing it can be separate. The competing choice “A policy engine by itself” addresses a different mechanism: the engine computes decisions but does not directly terminate packets or sessions. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A register records acceptance decisions without acting on a live connection. A business risk or contractual measure can transfer or accept exposure without technically removing the vulnerable path. Here the decisive fact is a microsegmentation gateway terminates a session when the control plane revokes its permission. “Policy enforcement point in the data plane” matches that requirement because the enforcement point carries out allow and deny decisions on resource traffic.

B:

The engine computes decisions but does not directly terminate packets or sessions. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. In the reported situation, a microsegmentation gateway terminates a session when the control plane revokes its permission. The effective mechanism is “Policy enforcement point in the data plane”: the enforcement point carries out allow and deny decisions on resource traffic.

D:

A static report cannot intercept the revoked session. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. Here the decisive fact is a microsegmentation gateway terminates a session when the control plane revokes its permission. “Policy enforcement point in the data plane” matches that requirement because the enforcement point carries out allow and deny decisions on resource traffic.

Question 23

Forklifts repeatedly strike a data center's exterior wall near a loading lane, although no pedestrian intrusion is involved. Which physical control is most directly targeted to this hazard?

  1. Install crash-rated bollards before the wall
  2. Extend camera retention
  3. Add an email quarantine system
  4. Upgrade door badge encryption

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Bollards create a vehicle-impact barrier at the exposed approach. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. The case turns on no pedestrian intrusion is involved; “Install crash-rated bollards before the wall” addresses that precise condition. “Add an email quarantine system” is not equivalent because filtering malicious mail does not change a vehicle's physical route. Position and impact rating matter: the bollards must intercept the expected vehicle approach and protect the wall without creating an unsafe pedestrian obstruction.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A stored recording documents damage instead of absorbing the impact. Cameras are primarily detective: they observe or preserve evidence, but a recording is not equivalent to preventing the observed act. In the reported situation, no pedestrian intrusion is involved. The effective mechanism is “Install crash-rated bollards before the wall”: bollards create a vehicle-impact barrier at the exposed approach.

C:

Filtering malicious mail does not change a vehicle's physical route. The evidence is no pedestrian intrusion is involved. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. By contrast, “Install crash-rated bollards before the wall” operates on the specific concern: bollards create a vehicle-impact barrier at the exposed approach.

D:

Stronger card cryptography does not stop accidental forklift collisions. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. Here the decisive fact is no pedestrian intrusion is involved. “Install crash-rated bollards before the wall” matches that requirement because bollards create a vehicle-impact barrier at the exposed approach.

Question 24

A restricted lab has approved cards, but one valid employee opens a door and two unbadged followers enter. Which design best prevents this specific bypass?

  1. A password reset policy
  2. An access-control vestibule that verifies one entrant per authorization
  3. A longer CCTV storage period
  4. A perimeter spam filter

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Interlocking entry reduces piggybacking instead of trusting a held-open badge door. The important enforcement boundary is the physical entrance: an authorized credential should permit the intended person, while an unapproved attempt must be stopped rather than merely recorded. The stated evidence is one valid employee opens a door and two unbadged followers enter. This distinction rules out “A longer CCTV storage period”: retrospective video cannot physically enforce one-person entry. “An access-control vestibule that verifies one entrant per authorization” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

User-account resets do not control how many people pass a physical threshold. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is one valid employee opens a door and two unbadged followers enter. “An access-control vestibule that verifies one entrant per authorization” matches that requirement because interlocking entry reduces piggybacking instead of trusting a held-open badge door.

C:

Retrospective video cannot physically enforce one-person entry. The evidence is one valid employee opens a door and two unbadged followers enter. Cameras are primarily detective: they observe or preserve evidence, but a recording is not equivalent to preventing the observed act. By contrast, “An access-control vestibule that verifies one entrant per authorization” operates on the specific concern: interlocking entry reduces piggybacking instead of trusting a held-open badge door.

D:

Mail filtering has no bearing on following someone through a lab doorway. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. Here the decisive fact is one valid employee opens a door and two unbadged followers enter. “An access-control vestibule that verifies one entrant per authorization” matches that requirement because interlocking entry reduces piggybacking instead of trusting a held-open badge door.

Question 25

A security team needs an alert if someone opens a document no authorized business process ever accesses. Which deception artifact provides a high-signal tripwire?

  1. A public-facing status webpage
  2. A standard company handbook
  3. A monitored honeyfile containing no real customer data
  4. A backup copy of live customer data

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A deliberately unused decoy document can report unauthorized reads without exposing genuine secrets. For this case, a security team needs an alert if someone opens a document no authorized business process ever accesses. Detection quality depends on preserved context, timestamps and reliable event provenance; a dashboard event alone neither blocks the activity nor proves the diagnosis. The competing choice “A backup copy of live customer data” addresses a different mechanism: legitimate backup access would produce noise and unnecessary sensitive-data risk. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Normal internet requests would overwhelm an intrusion-focused tripwire. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. Here the decisive fact is a security team needs an alert if someone opens a document no authorized business process ever accesses. “A monitored honeyfile containing no real customer data” matches that requirement because a deliberately unused decoy document can report unauthorized reads without exposing genuine secrets.

B:

Many employees open it legitimately, making access a weak intrusion signal. Written guidance and awareness influence behavior, but they do not by themselves enforce a technical or physical boundary. In the reported situation, a security team needs an alert if someone opens a document no authorized business process ever accesses. The effective mechanism is “A monitored honeyfile containing no real customer data”: a deliberately unused decoy document can report unauthorized reads without exposing genuine secrets.

D:

Legitimate backup access would produce noise and unnecessary sensitive-data risk. Backups and replicated copies mainly serve recovery and resilience; they do not inherently prevent an attacker from obtaining present access. Here the decisive fact is a security team needs an alert if someone opens a document no authorized business process ever accesses. “A monitored honeyfile containing no real customer data” matches that requirement because a deliberately unused decoy document can report unauthorized reads without exposing genuine secrets.

Question 26

A decoy environment intentionally imitates several vulnerable machines to study attacker movement among them. What form of deception is this?

  1. A hardware security module
  2. A content-delivery network
  3. A connected honeynet of decoys
  4. An individual honeytoken

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A coordinated decoy network allows observation of lateral movement across simulated hosts. For this case, a decoy environment intentionally imitates several vulnerable machines to study attacker movement among them. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. The competing choice “A hardware security module” addresses a different mechanism: key custody does not simulate attackable network systems. That difference is material to the requested decision. A honeynet must be deliberately separated from production; its value comes from observing interaction between connected decoys, not exposing genuine credentials.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Key custody does not simulate attackable network systems. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. Here the decisive fact is a decoy environment intentionally imitates several vulnerable machines to study attacker movement among them. “A connected honeynet of decoys” matches that requirement because a coordinated decoy network allows observation of lateral movement across simulated hosts.

B:

Caching legitimate pages is not the purpose of an intentionally vulnerable decoy environment. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. In the reported situation, a decoy environment intentionally imitates several vulnerable machines to study attacker movement among them. The effective mechanism is “A connected honeynet of decoys”: a coordinated decoy network allows observation of lateral movement across simulated hosts.

D:

One instrumented token cannot reproduce multi-host network behavior. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. Here the decisive fact is a decoy environment intentionally imitates several vulnerable machines to study attacker movement among them. “A connected honeynet of decoys” matches that requirement because a coordinated decoy network allows observation of lateral movement across simulated hosts.

Question 27

A guard must determine whether an alarm at a secured fence is triggered by body heat rather than nearby machinery vibration. Which sensor class primarily detects changes in infrared energy?

  1. Passive infrared motion sensing
  2. Door contact magnet sensing
  3. Ultrasonic ranging
  4. Pressure-mat sensing

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

PIR detection reacts to thermal contrast rather than contact pressure or acoustic reflections. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. The case turns on a guard must determine whether an alarm at a secured fence is triggered by body heat rather than nearby machinery vibration; “Passive infrared motion sensing” addresses that precise condition. “Door contact magnet sensing” is not equivalent because a magnetic contact reports closure state rather than a moving heat signature.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A magnetic contact reports closure state rather than a moving heat signature. Physical mechanisms address passage or impact at a location; they cannot directly repair software validation and network authorization defects. In the reported situation, a guard must determine whether an alarm at a secured fence is triggered by body heat rather than nearby machinery vibration. The effective mechanism is “Passive infrared motion sensing”: pIR detection reacts to thermal contrast rather than contact pressure or acoustic reflections.

C:

Ultrasonic devices rely on reflected sound, not thermal infrared contrast. The evidence is a guard must determine whether an alarm at a secured fence is triggered by body heat rather than nearby machinery vibration. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. By contrast, “Passive infrared motion sensing” operates on the specific concern: pIR detection reacts to thermal contrast rather than contact pressure or acoustic reflections.

D:

Pressure sensors require force on the sensing area and do not detect heat radiation. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. Here the decisive fact is a guard must determine whether an alarm at a secured fence is triggered by body heat rather than nearby machinery vibration. “Passive infrared motion sensing” matches that requirement because pIR detection reacts to thermal contrast rather than contact pressure or acoustic reflections.

Question 28

A cabinet alarm must activate only when someone steps onto its protected floor tile. Which sensor best measures that trigger?

  1. A surveillance camera with extended storage
  2. A microwave motion detector
  3. A pressure-sensitive floor mat
  4. A passive infrared detector

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A pressure mat registers the applied load at the chosen approach position. For this case, a cabinet alarm must activate only when someone steps onto its protected floor tile. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. The competing choice “A surveillance camera with extended storage” addresses a different mechanism: recording images does not directly measure weight on the tile. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recording images does not directly measure weight on the tile. Cameras are primarily detective: they observe or preserve evidence, but a recording is not equivalent to preventing the observed act. Here the decisive fact is a cabinet alarm must activate only when someone steps onto its protected floor tile. “A pressure-sensitive floor mat” matches that requirement because a pressure mat registers the applied load at the chosen approach position.

B:

Radar movement sensing does not establish contact pressure on the floor. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. In the reported situation, a cabinet alarm must activate only when someone steps onto its protected floor tile. The effective mechanism is “A pressure-sensitive floor mat”: a pressure mat registers the applied load at the chosen approach position.

D:

Thermal motion can trigger without a foot touching the specific tile. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. Here the decisive fact is a cabinet alarm must activate only when someone steps onto its protected floor tile. “A pressure-sensitive floor mat” matches that requirement because a pressure mat registers the applied load at the chosen approach position.

Question 29

An online service verifies that a certificate belongs to a server before exchanging secrets, whereas a person enters a code from an authenticator. What is the common security purpose of these distinct checks?

  1. Authentication of an asserted identity
  2. Authorization to read every hosted file
  3. Accounting for all future changes
  4. Guaranteeing that the service never fails

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both mechanisms establish confidence that the peer is who it claims to be, using different evidence. Recovery controls have to be tested against actual restore requirements and isolated from the same compromise path; possessing a backup is not evidence that a timely, usable restoration is possible. The case turns on a person enters a code from an authenticator; “Authentication of an asserted identity” addresses that precise condition. “Guaranteeing that the service never fails” is not equivalent because authentication cannot make the server continuously available.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Identity proof does not confer unrestricted access rights. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. In the reported situation, a person enters a code from an authenticator. The effective mechanism is “Authentication of an asserted identity”: both mechanisms establish confidence that the peer is who it claims to be, using different evidence.

C:

Neither identity check automatically stores an immutable activity history. The evidence is a person enters a code from an authenticator. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. By contrast, “Authentication of an asserted identity” operates on the specific concern: both mechanisms establish confidence that the peer is who it claims to be, using different evidence.

D:

Authentication cannot make the server continuously available. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. Here the decisive fact is a person enters a code from an authenticator. “Authentication of an asserted identity” matches that requirement because both mechanisms establish confidence that the peer is who it claims to be, using different evidence.

Question 30

A company has many unused privileged accounts and wants to shrink the reachable blast radius if one identity is compromised. Which principle most directly governs the role design?

  1. Log access events but leave every role unrestricted
  2. Grant all administrators global ownership for convenience
  3. Grant only the permissions required for each job function
  4. Use the same emergency password for every role

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Least privilege limits the resources available to a compromised account. For this case, a company has many unused privileged accounts and wants to shrink the reachable blast radius if one identity is compromised. Least privilege requires evaluating the specific action and resource granted to a principal; a broadly authenticated identity should not inherit unrelated high-impact operations. The competing choice “Grant all administrators global ownership for convenience” addresses a different mechanism: broad rights amplify the attacker’s reach after a single credential compromise. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Monitoring does not reduce what a stolen privileged identity may do. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. Here the decisive fact is a company has many unused privileged accounts and wants to shrink the reachable blast radius if one identity is compromised. “Grant only the permissions required for each job function” matches that requirement because least privilege limits the resources available to a compromised account.

B:

Broad rights amplify the attacker’s reach after a single credential compromise. Authentication, authorization and accounting are distinct functions; similarly, information confidentiality, integrity and service availability describe different outcomes. In the reported situation, a company has many unused privileged accounts and wants to shrink the reachable blast radius if one identity is compromised. The effective mechanism is “Grant only the permissions required for each job function”: least privilege limits the resources available to a compromised account.

D:

A shared secret increases blast radius and impairs accountability. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a company has many unused privileged accounts and wants to shrink the reachable blast radius if one identity is compromised. “Grant only the permissions required for each job function” matches that requirement because least privilege limits the resources available to a compromised account.


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