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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 5

Question 40

A legacy warehouse terminal depends on a deprecated protocol that a proposed hardening baseline would block. How should the change proceed?

  1. Test application compatibility and plan a migration or narrowly scoped exception
  2. Silently disable the terminal's audit trail
  3. Declare every old protocol safe indefinitely
  4. Ignore the change's dependency list

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Removing the protocol without evaluating its sole dependent workload may interrupt operations. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. The case turns on a legacy warehouse terminal depends on a deprecated protocol that a proposed hardening baseline would block; “Test application compatibility and plan a migration or narrowly scoped exception” addresses that precise condition. “Declare every old protocol safe indefinitely” is not equivalent because age and business need do not remove the security exposure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Losing logs conceals impact and worsens accountability. Assessment identifies a state and supplies findings, but does not itself enforce a preventive control or finish remediation. In the reported situation, a legacy warehouse terminal depends on a deprecated protocol that a proposed hardening baseline would block. The effective mechanism is “Test application compatibility and plan a migration or narrowly scoped exception”: removing the protocol without evaluating its sole dependent workload may interrupt operations.

C:

Age and business need do not remove the security exposure. The evidence is a legacy warehouse terminal depends on a deprecated protocol that a proposed hardening baseline would block. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. By contrast, “Test application compatibility and plan a migration or narrowly scoped exception” operates on the specific concern: removing the protocol without evaluating its sole dependent workload may interrupt operations.

D:

An unreviewed dependency is exactly how avoidable outages occur. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. Here the decisive fact is a legacy warehouse terminal depends on a deprecated protocol that a proposed hardening baseline would block. “Test application compatibility and plan a migration or narrowly scoped exception” matches that requirement because removing the protocol without evaluating its sole dependent workload may interrupt operations.

Question 41

A branch-router change has three engineers editing separate copies of the running configuration. Which practice controls conflicting versions?

  1. Share a screenshot of each engineer's terminal
  2. Rely on a verbal handoff at shift change
  3. Use a single reviewed version-controlled configuration baseline
  4. Store all revisions in an unindexed email inbox

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A known authoritative revision prevents incompatible edits from silently overwriting one another. For this case, a branch-router change has three engineers editing separate copies of the running configuration. Production change safety combines accountable authorization, tested rollback and knowledge of service dependencies; logging a failed deployment cannot retroactively prevent its outage. The competing choice “Rely on a verbal handoff at shift change” addresses a different mechanism: oral updates do not enforce which configuration is deployed. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Images are not a dependable change-history or merge mechanism. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. Here the decisive fact is a branch-router change has three engineers editing separate copies of the running configuration. “Use a single reviewed version-controlled configuration baseline” matches that requirement because a known authoritative revision prevents incompatible edits from silently overwriting one another.

B:

Oral updates do not enforce which configuration is deployed. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. In the reported situation, a branch-router change has three engineers editing separate copies of the running configuration. The effective mechanism is “Use a single reviewed version-controlled configuration baseline”: a known authoritative revision prevents incompatible edits from silently overwriting one another.

D:

Email attachments do not establish a reliable source of configuration truth. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. Here the decisive fact is a branch-router change has three engineers editing separate copies of the running configuration. “Use a single reviewed version-controlled configuration baseline” matches that requirement because a known authoritative revision prevents incompatible edits from silently overwriting one another.

Question 42

A change ticket gives a detailed implementation command but no safe way to reverse it. What minimum addition is necessary for deployment readiness?

  1. An assurance that the engineer is confident
  2. A shorter description of the proposed command
  3. A list of unrelated vulnerabilities
  4. A tested rollback plan with trigger and responsible operator

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Backout instructions must specify when and how to restore service if the change fails. Production change safety combines accountable authorization, tested rollback and knowledge of service dependencies; logging a failed deployment cannot retroactively prevent its outage. The case turns on no safe way to reverse it; “A tested rollback plan with trigger and responsible operator” addresses that precise condition. “A shorter description of the proposed command” is not equivalent because less documentation does not create a recovery path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Confidence without rehearsed recovery does not meet change safety criteria. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. Here the decisive fact is no safe way to reverse it. “A tested rollback plan with trigger and responsible operator” matches that requirement because backout instructions must specify when and how to restore service if the change fails.

B:

Less documentation does not create a recovery path. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. In the reported situation, no safe way to reverse it. The effective mechanism is “A tested rollback plan with trigger and responsible operator”: backout instructions must specify when and how to restore service if the change fails.

C:

Other findings cannot reverse the targeted production change. The evidence is no safe way to reverse it. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. By contrast, “A tested rollback plan with trigger and responsible operator” operates on the specific concern: backout instructions must specify when and how to restore service if the change fails.

Question 43

A health service applies security settings differently at each location because technicians follow outdated runbooks. What change-process control will reduce this drift?

  1. Allow site administrators to invent local passwords
  2. Remove the change owner from tickets
  3. Stop collecting validation output
  4. Publish a reviewed standard operating procedure tied to the approved baseline

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A current standardized procedure gives every site the same sequence and verification criteria. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. The case turns on a health service applies security settings differently at each location because technicians follow outdated runbooks; “Publish a reviewed standard operating procedure tied to the approved baseline” addresses that precise condition. “Remove the change owner from tickets” is not equivalent because missing accountability will not correct divergent execution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Local improvisation increases configuration and identity inconsistency. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a health service applies security settings differently at each location because technicians follow outdated runbooks. “Publish a reviewed standard operating procedure tied to the approved baseline” matches that requirement because a current standardized procedure gives every site the same sequence and verification criteria.

B:

Missing accountability will not correct divergent execution. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. In the reported situation, a health service applies security settings differently at each location because technicians follow outdated runbooks. The effective mechanism is “Publish a reviewed standard operating procedure tied to the approved baseline”: a current standardized procedure gives every site the same sequence and verification criteria.

C:

Without verification records, drift is harder to detect. The evidence is a health service applies security settings differently at each location because technicians follow outdated runbooks. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. By contrast, “Publish a reviewed standard operating procedure tied to the approved baseline” operates on the specific concern: a current standardized procedure gives every site the same sequence and verification criteria.

Question 44

A vendor asks to add a temporary management subnet exception for a software upgrade, then leave it permanently enabled. How should the authorization be structured?

  1. Grant perpetual administrator access to reduce future tickets
  2. Disable the management subnet firewall entirely
  3. Time-bound the exception with approval, expiry and removal verification
  4. Skip the expiry review because the vendor is certified

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A bounded exception permits a controlled maintenance need without creating permanent unreviewed access. For this case, a vendor asks to add a temporary management subnet exception for a software upgrade, then leave it permanently enabled. Supply-chain assurance must be matched to the delegated role and contracted responsibility, including evidence of controls and recovery expectations, not inferred solely from a supplier label. The competing choice “Skip the expiry review because the vendor is certified” addresses a different mechanism: supplier reputation does not replace local access governance. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Permanent exposure outlasts the authorized maintenance purpose. Access entitlements govern which specific operations a principal may perform; granting broad roles can expand the damage of credential compromise. Here the decisive fact is a vendor asks to add a temporary management subnet exception for a software upgrade, then leave it permanently enabled. “Time-bound the exception with approval, expiry and removal verification” matches that requirement because a bounded exception permits a controlled maintenance need without creating permanent unreviewed access.

B:

Broad access contradicts the requirement for a narrowly scoped exception. Network restrictions govern allowed flows and trust boundaries, not every application-layer input or business permission. In the reported situation, a vendor asks to add a temporary management subnet exception for a software upgrade, then leave it permanently enabled. The effective mechanism is “Time-bound the exception with approval, expiry and removal verification”: a bounded exception permits a controlled maintenance need without creating permanent unreviewed access.

D:

Supplier reputation does not replace local access governance. Approved changes require a responsible owner, validation of affected dependencies, a controlled deployment window and a recoverable rollback path. Here the decisive fact is a vendor asks to add a temporary management subnet exception for a software upgrade, then leave it permanently enabled. “Time-bound the exception with approval, expiry and removal verification” matches that requirement because a bounded exception permits a controlled maintenance need without creating permanent unreviewed access.

Question 45

A laptop contains sensitive project files and may be stolen while powered off. Which cryptographic scope best covers all local user data and temporary files by default?

  1. Encrypt only one document in a shared folder
  2. Hash each project filename
  3. Apply TLS to the company's web portal
  4. Managed full-disk encryption with protected recovery keys

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Whole-volume coverage protects more than a manually selected file list when the device is offline. Key custody, confidentiality and integrity are distinct requirements: a tool that encrypts bytes is not automatically a valid source of identity, trust or hardware-backed attestation. The case turns on a laptop contains sensitive project files and may be stolen while powered off; “Managed full-disk encryption with protected recovery keys” addresses that precise condition. “Hash each project filename” is not equivalent because filename hashes cannot conceal the underlying file contents.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unselected caches and temporary artifacts remain readable. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. Here the decisive fact is a laptop contains sensitive project files and may be stolen while powered off. “Managed full-disk encryption with protected recovery keys” matches that requirement because whole-volume coverage protects more than a manually selected file list when the device is offline.

B:

Filename hashes cannot conceal the underlying file contents. Integrity evidence helps detect unauthorized changes only when compared with a trusted reference; it is not a substitute for authorization or confidentiality. In the reported situation, a laptop contains sensitive project files and may be stolen while powered off. The effective mechanism is “Managed full-disk encryption with protected recovery keys”: whole-volume coverage protects more than a manually selected file list when the device is offline.

C:

Transport encryption does not protect files on a stolen powered-off disk. The evidence is a laptop contains sensitive project files and may be stolen while powered off. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. By contrast, “Managed full-disk encryption with protected recovery keys” operates on the specific concern: whole-volume coverage protects more than a manually selected file list when the device is offline.

Question 46

A database operator must keep a national ID column hidden from a reporting team while still allowing aggregate totals. Which data-protection technique directly controls the exposed field?

  1. Increase the database server's disk quota
  2. Publish a public certificate for the web interface
  3. Dynamic column-level masking for unauthorized query roles
  4. Store unencrypted exports in a shared drive

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Role-based masking conceals individual values in reports without making aggregation impossible. For this case, a database operator must keep a national ID column hidden from a reporting team while still allowing aggregate totals. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. The competing choice “Increase the database server's disk quota” addresses a different mechanism: capacity expansion does not hide a restricted field from a query. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Capacity expansion does not hide a restricted field from a query. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. Here the decisive fact is a database operator must keep a national ID column hidden from a reporting team while still allowing aggregate totals. “Dynamic column-level masking for unauthorized query roles” matches that requirement because role-based masking conceals individual values in reports without making aggregation impossible.

B:

A certificate authenticates the endpoint but does not mask authorized query results. A certificate check is about peer identity, signer trust or revocation. It cannot replace a separate application permission or endpoint control. In the reported situation, a database operator must keep a national ID column hidden from a reporting team while still allowing aggregate totals. The effective mechanism is “Dynamic column-level masking for unauthorized query roles”: role-based masking conceals individual values in reports without making aggregation impossible.

D:

Additional copies increase disclosure risk rather than limiting returned values. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. Here the decisive fact is a database operator must keep a national ID column hidden from a reporting team while still allowing aggregate totals. “Dynamic column-level masking for unauthorized query roles” matches that requirement because role-based masking conceals individual values in reports without making aggregation impossible.

Question 47

A payment processor replaces card numbers with random references and stores the mapping in a protected vault. Which technique is being applied?

  1. Tokenization backed by a segregated mapping service
  2. Adding a visible watermark to the invoice
  3. A reversible encoding like Base64
  4. A cryptographic hash used as the full card number

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A token can stand in for a sensitive identifier while the original stays in a controlled vault. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. The case turns on a payment processor replaces card numbers with random references and stores the mapping in a protected vault; “Tokenization backed by a segregated mapping service” addresses that precise condition. “A cryptographic hash used as the full card number” is not equivalent because a digest is not a reversible lookup token and may break required payment workflows.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A watermark does not decouple a database value from its original card number. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. In the reported situation, a payment processor replaces card numbers with random references and stores the mapping in a protected vault. The effective mechanism is “Tokenization backed by a segregated mapping service”: a token can stand in for a sensitive identifier while the original stays in a controlled vault.

C:

Encoding does not remove the original value's sensitivity from applications. The evidence is a payment processor replaces card numbers with random references and stores the mapping in a protected vault. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. By contrast, “Tokenization backed by a segregated mapping service” operates on the specific concern: a token can stand in for a sensitive identifier while the original stays in a controlled vault.

D:

A digest is not a reversible lookup token and may break required payment workflows. Integrity evidence helps detect unauthorized changes only when compared with a trusted reference; it is not a substitute for authorization or confidentiality. Here the decisive fact is a payment processor replaces card numbers with random references and stores the mapping in a protected vault. “Tokenization backed by a segregated mapping service” matches that requirement because a token can stand in for a sensitive identifier while the original stays in a controlled vault.

Question 48

A developer wants to establish a shared symmetric session key with an authenticated remote peer over an untrusted network. What combination best addresses confidentiality and peer authenticity?

  1. Encrypt traffic solely with a checksum
  2. Use only an unauthenticated public-key exchange
  3. Authenticated key agreement followed by symmetric session encryption
  4. Send a static AES key in a plaintext message

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An authenticated exchange resists impersonation while fast symmetric cryptography protects the payload. For this case, a developer wants to establish a shared symmetric session key with an authenticated remote peer over an untrusted network. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. The competing choice “Encrypt traffic solely with a checksum” addresses a different mechanism: checksums detect some changes but cannot keep message content confidential. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Checksums detect some changes but cannot keep message content confidential. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. Here the decisive fact is a developer wants to establish a shared symmetric session key with an authenticated remote peer over an untrusted network. “Authenticated key agreement followed by symmetric session encryption” matches that requirement because an authenticated exchange resists impersonation while fast symmetric cryptography protects the payload.

B:

Without authenticated peer identity, a man-in-the-middle can substitute exchange messages. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. In the reported situation, a developer wants to establish a shared symmetric session key with an authenticated remote peer over an untrusted network. The effective mechanism is “Authenticated key agreement followed by symmetric session encryption”: an authenticated exchange resists impersonation while fast symmetric cryptography protects the payload.

D:

An observer can capture the session secret before encryption begins. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. Here the decisive fact is a developer wants to establish a shared symmetric session key with an authenticated remote peer over an untrusted network. “Authenticated key agreement followed by symmetric session encryption” matches that requirement because an authenticated exchange resists impersonation while fast symmetric cryptography protects the payload.

Question 49

A signing service must produce high-value digital signatures without exporting its private signing key into application memory. Which component best fits this requirement?

  1. A shared filesystem holding the private key
  2. A hardware security module performing non-exportable signing
  3. A content-delivery network
  4. A transparent proxy cache

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The HSM enforces key custody and performs operations internally on authorized requests. Key custody, confidentiality and integrity are distinct requirements: a tool that encrypts bytes is not automatically a valid source of identity, trust or hardware-backed attestation. The stated evidence is a signing service must produce high-value digital signatures without exporting its private signing key into application memory. This distinction rules out “A shared filesystem holding the private key”: any authorized application with file access could copy the key material. “A hardware security module performing non-exportable signing” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Any authorized application with file access could copy the key material. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. Here the decisive fact is a signing service must produce high-value digital signatures without exporting its private signing key into application memory. “A hardware security module performing non-exportable signing” matches that requirement because the HSM enforces key custody and performs operations internally on authorized requests.

C:

A CDN does not protect an asymmetric signing secret. The evidence is a signing service must produce high-value digital signatures without exporting its private signing key into application memory. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. By contrast, “A hardware security module performing non-exportable signing” operates on the specific concern: the HSM enforces key custody and performs operations internally on authorized requests.

D:

Caching requests does not isolate private signing operations. A tunnel or proxy changes the transport or inspection path; fine-grained identity and resource authorization still need explicit policy. Here the decisive fact is a signing service must produce high-value digital signatures without exporting its private signing key into application memory. “A hardware security module performing non-exportable signing” matches that requirement because the HSM enforces key custody and performs operations internally on authorized requests.

Question 50

A device boot policy needs a hardware-backed measurement of the startup state to support trusted attestation. Which chip function is most relevant?

  1. A TPM sealing or attesting measurements tied to platform state
  2. A UEFI password without a hardware attestation key
  3. An encrypted system volume with no measured-boot attestation
  4. A Secure Boot allowlist alone without recorded TPM measurements

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A trusted platform module can bind cryptographic operations to measured boot evidence. Key custody, confidentiality and integrity are distinct requirements: a tool that encrypts bytes is not automatically a valid source of identity, trust or hardware-backed attestation. The case turns on a device boot policy needs a hardware-backed measurement of the startup state to support trusted attestation; “A TPM sealing or attesting measurements tied to platform state” addresses that precise condition. “A Secure Boot allowlist alone without recorded TPM measurements” is not equivalent because an allowlist can reject unauthorized boot components but does not itself provide hardware-attested startup measurements.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A firmware password can limit setup changes but cannot cryptographically attest measured startup state to a verifier. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. In the reported situation, a device boot policy needs a hardware-backed measurement of the startup state to support trusted attestation. The effective mechanism is “A TPM sealing or attesting measurements tied to platform state”: a trusted platform module can bind cryptographic operations to measured boot evidence.

C:

Disk encryption protects data at rest but does not supply an independent measurement of the boot chain. The evidence is a device boot policy needs a hardware-backed measurement of the startup state to support trusted attestation. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. By contrast, “A TPM sealing or attesting measurements tied to platform state” operates on the specific concern: a trusted platform module can bind cryptographic operations to measured boot evidence.

D:

An allowlist can reject unauthorized boot components but does not itself provide hardware-attested startup measurements. Cryptographic controls differ by function: encryption conceals information, signatures provide integrity and signer authentication, and key management governs the secrets and trust supporting both. Here the decisive fact is a device boot policy needs a hardware-backed measurement of the startup state to support trusted attestation. “A TPM sealing or attesting measurements tied to platform state” matches that requirement because a trusted platform module can bind cryptographic operations to measured boot evidence.


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