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CompTIA PK0-005 Practice Test 23

Question 220

Procurement seeks solution designs, capabilities and pricing from several suppliers. Which caution is MOST directly relevant to the project manager's decision?

  1. Fixed price does not mean unlimited additional scope is included without amendment
  2. A small technical edit cannot be assumed to have zero downstream effects
  3. A high-probability trivial event need not outrank a rare catastrophic event
  4. A simple quote form may be insufficient for evaluating competing solution architectures

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A simple quote form may be insufficient for evaluating competing solution architectures. The underlying reason is that an RFP solicits proposed solutions rather than only one pre-specified commodity price.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This is a caution about fixed price contract, not the immediate risk in request for proposal. Fixed-price contracts shift much cost overrun exposure to the supplier within scope.

B:

This is a caution about change impact assessment, not the immediate risk in request for proposal. Change decisions require cross-baseline impact analysis before approval.

C:

This is a caution about qualitative risk matrix, not the immediate risk in request for proposal. Qualitative risk analysis ranks uncertainty using likelihood and impact judgments.

Question 221

A well-defined hardware installation scope has tight budget certainty requirements. Which project-management action BEST addresses this situation?

  1. Consider a fixed-price agreement with explicit scope and acceptance criteria
  2. Analyze scope, cost, schedule, quality, resources and risks before a decision
  3. Proactively increase the chance or benefit of a positive opportunity
  4. Run user acceptance testing against agreed business scenarios

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Fixed-price contracts shift much cost overrun exposure to the supplier within scope. Here, a well-defined hardware installation scope has tight budget certainty requirements; the chosen action targets that failure. Verification: check change orders are reviewed separately from the contracted fixed baseline.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This response addresses change impact assessment, but the stated decision concerns fixed price contract. Change decisions require cross-baseline impact analysis before approval.

C:

This response addresses positive opportunity, but the stated decision concerns fixed price contract. Positive risk responses can enhance or exploit potential benefits.

D:

This response addresses user acceptance tests, but the stated decision concerns fixed price contract. User acceptance testing determines whether business needs are met.

Question 222

The team follows this response: Consider a fixed-price agreement with explicit scope and acceptance criteria. Context: a well-defined hardware installation scope has tight budget certainty requirements. Which evidence BEST verifies the intended outcome?

  1. Check change orders are reviewed separately from the contracted fixed baseline
  2. Confirm the active baseline and stakeholder notifications match the approved change
  3. Verify stakeholders know who performs work versus who owns the decision
  4. Review a completed increment and stakeholder feedback at the sprint review

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Check change orders are reviewed separately from the contracted fixed baseline. That evidence tests the response to a well-defined hardware installation scope has tight budget certainty requirements instead of an unrelated project condition.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This check would validate controlled deployment, not the result required by the fixed price contract case. Approved changes must be incorporated into the plan and communicated.

C:

This check would validate raci accountability, not the result required by the fixed price contract case. RACI distinguishes responsible implementers from accountable decision owners.

D:

This check would validate scrum iteration, not the result required by the fixed price contract case. Scrum delivers in short cycles and adapts the product backlog based on feedback.

Question 223

A client wants predictable total payment for clearly specified deliverables. Which principle MOST directly explains how the project should be managed?

  1. Fixed-price contracts shift much cost overrun exposure to the supplier within scope
  2. A project is temporary and creates a unique product, service or result
  3. Team effectiveness evolves through forming, storming, norming and performing
  4. Meeting effectiveness improves with agenda, roles and bounded duration

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Fixed-price contracts shift much cost overrun exposure to the supplier within scope. The situation involves a client wants predictable total payment for clearly specified deliverables, so this is the governing distinction.

Incorrect Answers

B:

That principle concerns unique deliverable rather than the problem of fixed price contract. A project is temporary and creates a unique product, service or result.

C:

That principle concerns team development stages rather than the problem of fixed price contract. Team effectiveness evolves through forming, storming, norming and performing.

D:

That principle concerns meeting agenda rather than the problem of fixed price contract. Meeting effectiveness improves with agenda, roles and bounded duration.

Question 224

A client wants predictable total payment for clearly specified deliverables. Which caution is MOST directly relevant to the project manager's decision?

  1. Simply adding a contingency is not the same as avoiding a threat
  2. A verbal sponsor request does not automatically amend the approved baseline
  3. Fixed price does not mean unlimited additional scope is included without amendment
  4. A portfolio need not consist of technically related projects

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Fixed price does not mean unlimited additional scope is included without amendment. The underlying reason is that fixed-price contracts shift much cost overrun exposure to the supplier within scope.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This is a caution about risk avoidance, not the immediate risk in fixed price contract. Avoidance changes the plan so the specific threat is no longer encountered.

B:

This is a caution about formal request capture, not the immediate risk in fixed price contract. Change control begins with a documented request, not an informal implementation.

D:

This is a caution about portfolio prioritization, not the immediate risk in fixed price contract. A portfolio prioritizes projects and programs to meet organizational strategy.

Question 225

An exploratory software repair cannot be scoped precisely in advance. Which project-management action BEST addresses this situation?

  1. Timebox the standup and defer deep technical analysis to a follow-up
  2. Choose frequent lightweight collaboration with recorded outcomes suited to time zones
  3. Use time-and-material terms with rate caps and oversight controls
  4. Use relative story estimation and capacity forecasts for iterative planning

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Time-and-material arrangements charge by effort and consumables. Here, an exploratory software repair cannot be scoped precisely in advance; the chosen action targets that failure. Verification: review actual labor logs and approved spend against agreed limits.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This response addresses standup focus, but the stated decision concerns time and materials. A standup emphasizes coordination and blockers rather than exhaustive troubleshooting.

B:

This response addresses communication cadence, but the stated decision concerns time and materials. Adaptive collaboration relies on frequent information sharing and rapid feedback.

D:

This response addresses agile estimation, but the stated decision concerns time and materials. Story points express relative effort and uncertainty within a team.

Question 226

The team follows this response: Use time-and-material terms with rate caps and oversight controls. Context: an exploratory software repair cannot be scoped precisely in advance. Which evidence BEST verifies the intended outcome?

  1. Review actual labor logs and approved spend against agreed limits
  2. Check the successor starts only after the predecessor is complete
  3. Check that the change record includes complete impact and alternatives
  4. Review resource loading to confirm no individual is double-booked

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Review actual labor logs and approved spend against agreed limits. That evidence tests the response to an exploratory software repair cannot be scoped precisely in advance instead of an unrelated project condition.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This check would validate finish-to-start dependency, not the result required by the time and materials case. Finish-to-start enforces ordered completion before dependent work starts.

C:

This check would validate change impact assessment, not the result required by the time and materials case. Change decisions require cross-baseline impact analysis before approval.

D:

This check would validate resource leveling, not the result required by the time and materials case. Resource leveling may change activity dates to match capacity.

Question 227

A vendor will troubleshoot uncertain defects with variable effort. Which principle MOST directly explains how the project should be managed?

  1. Time-and-material arrangements charge by effort and consumables
  2. Team effectiveness evolves through forming, storming, norming and performing
  3. A program coordinates related projects to realize benefits unavailable through isolated management
  4. A risk is uncertain future exposure, unlike an issue already happening

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Time-and-material arrangements charge by effort and consumables. The situation involves a vendor will troubleshoot uncertain defects with variable effort, so this is the governing distinction.

Incorrect Answers

B:

That principle concerns team development stages rather than the problem of time and materials. Team effectiveness evolves through forming, storming, norming and performing.

C:

That principle concerns program relationship rather than the problem of time and materials. A program coordinates related projects to realize benefits unavailable through isolated management.

D:

That principle concerns risk versus issue rather than the problem of time and materials. A risk is uncertain future exposure, unlike an issue already happening.

Question 228

A vendor will troubleshoot uncertain defects with variable effort. Which caution is MOST directly relevant to the project manager's decision?

  1. The scribe is not automatically the person authorized to make decisions
  2. Without controls, flexible labor billing can create unpredictable final cost
  3. Fixed price does not mean unlimited additional scope is included without amendment
  4. A high-probability trivial event need not outrank a rare catastrophic event

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Without controls, flexible labor billing can create unpredictable final cost. The underlying reason is that time-and-material arrangements charge by effort and consumables.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This is a caution about facilitator role, not the immediate risk in time and materials. A facilitator guides meeting process while a scribe records outcomes.

C:

This is a caution about fixed price contract, not the immediate risk in time and materials. Fixed-price contracts shift much cost overrun exposure to the supplier within scope.

D:

This is a caution about qualitative risk matrix, not the immediate risk in time and materials. Qualitative risk analysis ranks uncertainty using likelihood and impact judgments.

Question 229

A task path consists of three finish-to-start activities lasting 4, 6 and 5 business days with no lag, overlap or resource delay. How many business days does that path require?

  1. 10 business days
  2. 11 business days
  3. 30 business days
  4. 15 business days

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The dependent durations must be summed: 4 + 6 + 5 = 15 days.

Incorrect Answers

A:

10 omits the first activity duration.

B:

11 omits the final activity duration.

C:

30 doubles the total even though no duplicated work is stated.

Question 230

A project planned to spend $100,000 by month-end but has completed only $80,000 of budgeted work and spent $90,000. What is cost variance (EV − AC)?

  1. −$20,000
  2. −$10,000
  3. +$20,000
  4. +$10,000

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Earned value is $80,000 and actual cost is $90,000; cost variance = $80,000 − $90,000 = −$10,000.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A negative $20,000 compares earned value to planned value, which is schedule variance.

C:

A positive $20,000 reverses the schedule-variance direction and ignores actual cost.

D:

A positive $10,000 reverses the sign of the overrun.


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