CompTIA PK0-005 Practice Test 12

Question 110

The team follows this response: Document the workaround, residual risk, approval and permanent-fix plan. Context: an emergency workaround restores partial service but adds security exposure. Which evidence BEST verifies the intended outcome?

Confirm issue owner, escalation path and resolution target are recorded
Confirm the decision maker acts and the issue log reflects the escalation
Confirm service recovery and a scheduled permanent correction remain visible
Verify recurrence decreases after the underlying cause is removed

Explanation

Correct Answer

Confirm service recovery and a scheduled permanent correction remain visible. That evidence tests the response to an emergency workaround restores partial service but adds security exposure instead of an unrelated project condition.

Incorrect Answers

This check would validate issue ownership, not the result required by the workaround governance case. An issue is a present condition requiring active resolution.

This check would validate escalation trigger, not the result required by the workaround governance case. Issue escalation is appropriate when impact exceeds local authority or tolerance.

This check would validate root cause investigation, not the result required by the workaround governance case. Root cause analysis targets systemic sources, not only immediate symptoms.

Question 111

The team uses a temporary manual process during an application incident. Which principle MOST directly explains how the project should be managed?

Root cause analysis targets systemic sources, not only immediate symptoms
An issue is a present condition requiring active resolution
Issue escalation is appropriate when impact exceeds local authority or tolerance
A workaround limits immediate harm but does not automatically close the root problem

Explanation

Correct Answer

A workaround limits immediate harm but does not automatically close the root problem. The situation involves the team uses a temporary manual process during an application incident, so this is the governing distinction.

Incorrect Answers

That principle concerns root cause investigation rather than the problem of workaround governance. Root cause analysis targets systemic sources, not only immediate symptoms.

That principle concerns issue ownership rather than the problem of workaround governance. An issue is a present condition requiring active resolution.

That principle concerns escalation trigger rather than the problem of workaround governance. Issue escalation is appropriate when impact exceeds local authority or tolerance.

Question 112

The team uses a temporary manual process during an application incident. Which caution is MOST directly relevant to the project manager's decision?

First-in-first-out handling is not always safe for critical issues
An unresolved critical blocker should not wait indefinitely for a regular status meeting
Temporary workarounds should not silently become unreviewed permanent architecture
A current outage belongs only in a speculative risk register

Explanation

Correct Answer

Temporary workarounds should not silently become unreviewed permanent architecture. The underlying reason is that a workaround limits immediate harm but does not automatically close the root problem.

Incorrect Answers

This is a caution about issue prioritization, not the immediate risk in workaround governance. Issue priority must reflect impact and urgency rather than arrival order alone.

This is a caution about escalation trigger, not the immediate risk in workaround governance. Issue escalation is appropriate when impact exceeds local authority or tolerance.

This is a caution about issue ownership, not the immediate risk in workaround governance. An issue is a present condition requiring active resolution.

Question 113

A predecessor task on the longest dependent sequence slips by three days. Which project-management action BEST addresses this situation?

Model the required finish-to-start predecessor relationship
Recalculate critical path and forecast milestone impact from the delay
Use relative story estimation and capacity forecasts for iterative planning
Add a justified contingency buffer tied to identified uncertainty

Explanation

Correct Answer

Critical path activities govern the earliest possible completion date. Here, a predecessor task on the longest dependent sequence slips by three days; the chosen action targets that failure. Verification: verify recalculated finish date and zero-float tasks are documented.

Incorrect Answers

This response addresses finish-to-start dependency, but the stated decision concerns critical path impact. Finish-to-start enforces ordered completion before dependent work starts.

This response addresses agile estimation, but the stated decision concerns critical path impact. Story points express relative effort and uncertainty within a team.

This response addresses estimation reserve, but the stated decision concerns critical path impact. Contingency reserves address identified variation within a controlled plan.

Question 114

The team follows this response: Recalculate critical path and forecast milestone impact from the delay. Context: a predecessor task on the longest dependent sequence slips by three days. Which evidence BEST verifies the intended outcome?

Review resource loading to confirm no individual is double-booked
Confirm reserve assumptions and usage triggers are documented
Check the successor starts only after the predecessor is complete
Verify recalculated finish date and zero-float tasks are documented

Explanation

Correct Answer

Verify recalculated finish date and zero-float tasks are documented. That evidence tests the response to a predecessor task on the longest dependent sequence slips by three days instead of an unrelated project condition.

Incorrect Answers

This check would validate resource leveling, not the result required by the critical path impact case. Resource leveling may change activity dates to match capacity.

This check would validate estimation reserve, not the result required by the critical path impact case. Contingency reserves address identified variation within a controlled plan.

This check would validate finish-to-start dependency, not the result required by the critical path impact case. Finish-to-start enforces ordered completion before dependent work starts.

Question 115

A schedule has no slack along a chain of interdependent activities. Which principle MOST directly explains how the project should be managed?

Baseline control distinguishes approved commitments from current forecasts
Contingency reserves address identified variation within a controlled plan
Critical path activities govern the earliest possible completion date
Finish-to-start enforces ordered completion before dependent work starts

Explanation

Correct Answer

Critical path activities govern the earliest possible completion date. The situation involves a schedule has no slack along a chain of interdependent activities, so this is the governing distinction.

Incorrect Answers

That principle concerns baseline revision rather than the problem of critical path impact. Baseline control distinguishes approved commitments from current forecasts.

That principle concerns estimation reserve rather than the problem of critical path impact. Contingency reserves address identified variation within a controlled plan.

That principle concerns finish-to-start dependency rather than the problem of critical path impact. Finish-to-start enforces ordered completion before dependent work starts.

Question 116

A schedule has no slack along a chain of interdependent activities. Which caution is MOST directly relevant to the project manager's decision?

A delay on a noncritical task with float need not delay final delivery
A forecast change alone is not automatically authority to erase the baseline
A buffer should not be mistaken for unlimited authorization to add scope
One team's story point is not necessarily comparable to another team's hour

Explanation

Correct Answer

A delay on a noncritical task with float need not delay final delivery. The underlying reason is that critical path activities govern the earliest possible completion date.

Incorrect Answers

This is a caution about baseline revision, not the immediate risk in critical path impact. Baseline control distinguishes approved commitments from current forecasts.

This is a caution about estimation reserve, not the immediate risk in critical path impact. Contingency reserves address identified variation within a controlled plan.

This is a caution about agile estimation, not the immediate risk in critical path impact. Story points express relative effort and uncertainty within a team.

Question 117

Database migration cannot start until a backup restore test completes. Which project-management action BEST addresses this situation?

Use relative story estimation and capacity forecasts for iterative planning
Model the required finish-to-start predecessor relationship
Rebaseline only after authorized substantive changes, retaining variance history
Resolve resource over-allocation by sequencing or changing assignments

Explanation

Correct Answer

Finish-to-start enforces ordered completion before dependent work starts. Here, database migration cannot start until a backup restore test completes; the chosen action targets that failure. Verification: check the successor starts only after the predecessor is complete.

Incorrect Answers

This response addresses agile estimation, but the stated decision concerns finish-to-start dependency. Story points express relative effort and uncertainty within a team.

This response addresses baseline revision, but the stated decision concerns finish-to-start dependency. Baseline control distinguishes approved commitments from current forecasts.

This response addresses resource leveling, but the stated decision concerns finish-to-start dependency. Resource leveling may change activity dates to match capacity.

Question 118

The team follows this response: Model the required finish-to-start predecessor relationship. Context: database migration cannot start until a backup restore test completes. Which evidence BEST verifies the intended outcome?

Confirm reserve assumptions and usage triggers are documented
Verify recalculated finish date and zero-float tasks are documented
Check the successor starts only after the predecessor is complete
Check velocity trends rather than treating points as universal labor hours

Explanation

Correct Answer

Check the successor starts only after the predecessor is complete. That evidence tests the response to database migration cannot start until a backup restore test completes instead of an unrelated project condition.

Incorrect Answers

This check would validate estimation reserve, not the result required by the finish-to-start dependency case. Contingency reserves address identified variation within a controlled plan.

This check would validate critical path impact, not the result required by the finish-to-start dependency case. Critical path activities govern the earliest possible completion date.

This check would validate agile estimation, not the result required by the finish-to-start dependency case. Story points express relative effort and uncertainty within a team.

Question 119

An application deployment must follow final security approval. Which principle MOST directly explains how the project should be managed?

Story points express relative effort and uncertainty within a team
Contingency reserves address identified variation within a controlled plan
Critical path activities govern the earliest possible completion date
Finish-to-start enforces ordered completion before dependent work starts

Explanation

Correct Answer

Finish-to-start enforces ordered completion before dependent work starts. The situation involves an application deployment must follow final security approval, so this is the governing distinction.

Incorrect Answers

That principle concerns agile estimation rather than the problem of finish-to-start dependency. Story points express relative effort and uncertainty within a team.

That principle concerns estimation reserve rather than the problem of finish-to-start dependency. Contingency reserves address identified variation within a controlled plan.

That principle concerns critical path impact rather than the problem of finish-to-start dependency. Critical path activities govern the earliest possible completion date.

Question 120

An application deployment must follow final security approval. Which caution is MOST directly relevant to the project manager's decision?

A visual order on a Gantt chart is not proof the dependency is enforced
A delay on a noncritical task with float need not delay final delivery
One team's story point is not necessarily comparable to another team's hour
A forecast change alone is not automatically authority to erase the baseline

Explanation

Correct Answer

A visual order on a Gantt chart is not proof the dependency is enforced. The underlying reason is that finish-to-start enforces ordered completion before dependent work starts.

Incorrect Answers

This is a caution about critical path impact, not the immediate risk in finish-to-start dependency. Critical path activities govern the earliest possible completion date.

This is a caution about agile estimation, not the immediate risk in finish-to-start dependency. Story points express relative effort and uncertainty within a team.

This is a caution about baseline revision, not the immediate risk in finish-to-start dependency. Baseline control distinguishes approved commitments from current forecasts.

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Question 110

Explanation

Correct Answer

Incorrect Answers

Question 111

Explanation

Correct Answer

Incorrect Answers

Question 112

Explanation

Correct Answer

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Question 113

Explanation

Correct Answer

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Question 114

Explanation

Correct Answer

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Question 115

Explanation

Correct Answer

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Question 116

Explanation

Correct Answer

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Question 117

Explanation

Correct Answer

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Question 118

Explanation

Correct Answer

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Question 119

Explanation

Correct Answer

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Question 120

Explanation

Correct Answer

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CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) Practice Tests