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CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test 7

Question 60

A database backup agent uses a shared high-privilege local account on every host. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Compare membership change events with approved requests and remediate excessive grants.
  2. Inspect EDR process creation and quarantine records before concluding execution occurred.
  3. Apply endpoint DLP or removable-media policy for the identified sensitive groups.
  4. Replace the shared credential with scoped identities and rotate existing secrets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Shared elevated identities increase lateral movement exposure and reduce attribution. Remove shared backup service credential.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Privileged group drift can stem from faulty automation or abuse. That is relevant to endpoint controls and data paths, not to remove shared backup service credential.

B:

A detection or quarantine alone does not establish successful execution. It would distinguish file detection from executed process, but it would not remove shared backup service credential.

C:

Controls at the endpoint can enforce transfer restrictions before data leaves. It could help enforce removable-media data controls, but it would not remove shared backup service credential.

Question 61

A team only monitors cloud guest logs and misses changes to firewall security groups. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Ingest cloud activity and configuration audit logs in addition to guest telemetry.
  2. Block public access and investigate policy changes using control-plane logs.
  3. Replace wildcard permissions with resource- and action-scoped service-role policy.
  4. Validate source identity and session evidence, then investigate and disable unauthorized use.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cloud security-group edits occur in the control plane outside guest logging. Add cloud control-plane monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Exposure is an authorization problem requiring containment and attribution. It could help contain misconfigured public cloud storage, but it would not add cloud control-plane monitoring.

C:

Narrow entitlements limit the impact of a compromised automation identity. That is relevant to cloud entitlement and control-plane coverage, not to add cloud control-plane monitoring.

D:

Root activity is high-impact and cannot be accepted solely because MFA was present. It would triage abnormal cloud root API session, but it would not add cloud control-plane monitoring.

Question 62

A privileged user completes password sign-in without the required phishing-resistant challenge. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Require continuous device posture evaluation for conditional application access.
  2. Enforce appropriate MFA or passwordless policy for the privileged resource.
  3. Move the identity to just-in-time privileged access with approval and auditing.
  4. Validate claim-to-role mappings and apply least-privilege authorization at the relying party.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Strong step-up authentication protects higher-risk privileged access. Enforce high-assurance privileged authentication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Zero trust should reassess device state rather than rely on a one-time grant. It could help continuously evaluate device trust, but it would not enforce high-assurance privileged authentication.

C:

Limited elevation windows reduce persistent credential exposure. It would reduce standing administrator privilege, but it would not enforce high-assurance privileged authentication.

D:

Valid authentication does not imply authorization for every target role. It could help distinguish federation authentication from role authorization, but it would not enforce high-assurance privileged authentication.

Question 63

A BYOD user is denied privileged SaaS access although their password is correct. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Revoke application tokens and assess any actions after the deprovision timestamp.
  2. Investigate assertion mapping and reject nonunique identities until corrected.
  3. Check device-compliance and conditional-access decisions before resetting credentials.
  4. Join SID mappings to identity inventory and preserve mapping timestamps.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authorization can fail on device posture after successful authentication. Distinguish posture denial from bad password.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Disabling interactive sign-in may not cancel prior API credentials. That is relevant to alert identity enrichment and authentication gaps, not to distinguish posture denial from bad password.

B:

Identity collisions undermine attribution and can cross authorization boundaries. It would correct SAML subject mapping collision, but it would not distinguish posture denial from bad password.

D:

Identity enrichment makes cross-system activity attributable without conflating users. That is relevant to alert identity enrichment and authentication gaps, not to distinguish posture denial from bad password.

Question 64

Hybrid cloud logs use different resource identifiers for the same application identity. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Enable function execution and cloud control-plane logging with a protected central sink.
  2. Forward container stdout and security events outside the ephemeral container filesystem.
  3. Apply configuration monitoring inside each guest and compare against the approved baseline.
  4. Map workload and account identifiers during central SIEM normalization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Entity enrichment allows cross-environment activity to be correlated. Link identities across cloud and data center.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ephemeral workloads need centrally retained logs beyond their short lifetime. It would observe short-lived serverless actions, but it would not link identities across cloud and data center.

B:

External log persistence preserves evidence when containers are replaced. It could help preserve container telemetry across redeployments, but it would not link identities across cloud and data center.

C:

Hypervisor hardening alone does not ensure guest operating-system integrity. That is relevant to cloud and on-prem telemetry boundaries, not to link identities across cloud and data center.

Question 65

An internal scanner alert comes from a documented red-team exercise address. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Confirm the approved engagement scope and timing before downgrading severity.
  2. Investigate the source process and destination response pattern for network sweep activity.
  3. Preserve the interaction sequence and isolate honeypot telemetry from production credentials.
  4. Check first-seen, last-seen and current service ownership before taking action.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Authorized assessment traffic can resemble hostile reconnaissance. Verify approved red-team scanning.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Ordered horizontal probing suggests enumeration and possible pivot preparation. That is relevant to honeypot and reconnaissance indicators, not to verify approved red-team scanning.

C:

Decoy interaction can reveal attack behavior but must not introduce real access. It would analyze honeypot credential attack sequence, but it would not verify approved red-team scanning.

D:

Reputation can become stale when infrastructure addresses are reassigned. It could help challenge stale indicator attribution, but it would not verify approved red-team scanning.

Question 66

A browser launches a signed Windows utility that writes a new scheduled task. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Capture command arguments and mapped module evidence before host isolation.
  2. Trace browser download, child process and task creation to establish the execution chain.
  3. Validate the DLL path, signature and parent load behavior for possible sideloading.
  4. Examine the document macro, child command and network destination in the EDR timeline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Signed system tools can be abused for persistence after browser compromise. Correlate browser-to-LOLBin persistence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Living-off-the-land utilities can load unexpected content through valid binaries. That is relevant to suspicious windows process trees, not to correlate browser-to-LOLBin persistence.

C:

Trusted parent processes can execute malicious libraries through unsafe search paths. It could help detect potential DLL sideloading, but it would not correlate browser-to-LOLBin persistence.

D:

Office-to-shell ancestry is suspicious when followed by external communication. That is relevant to suspicious windows process trees, not to correlate browser-to-LOLBin persistence.

Question 67

A supplier invoice email passes SPF but contains a newly changed payment account and lookalike reply-to. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Classify the social-engineering attempt and notify impacted identities to reject code sharing.
  2. Decode and assess the QR target safely, and search gateway logs for affected recipients.
  3. Verify payment changes through an independent known contact channel and review header alignment.
  4. Inspect DMARC alignment and the original message headers before trusting the sender identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Sender authentication success does not confirm legitimate business instructions. Triage business email compromise lure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

MFA one-time codes are authentication secrets that support fraudulent sign-ins. It would detect voice-based MFA social engineering, but it would not triage business email compromise lure.

B:

Quishing hides a destination that still needs independent URL analysis. It could help investigate QR-code phishing, but it would not triage business email compromise lure.

D:

Valid DKIM for a different domain does not establish aligned sender legitimacy. It would evaluate email domain alignment failure, but it would not triage business email compromise lure.

Question 68

A proxy alert shows a large upload but the destination is an approved backup service. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Compare inter-arrival patterns and process ownership with authorized heartbeat traffic.
  2. Preserve blocked transaction records and investigate the originating process and user.
  3. Correlate proxy destination, bytes transferred, user activity and endpoint file-access events.
  4. Verify service account, approved job and object inventory before escalating.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Expected backup activity can resemble exfiltration without operational context. Distinguish scheduled backup from theft.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Fixed cadence plus suspicious process lineage can indicate automated command-and-control beaconing. It could help test regular TLS beaconing hypothesis, but it would not distinguish scheduled backup from theft.

B:

Evasion-like retry behavior increases suspicion beyond one failed transfer. That is relevant to http exfiltration indicators, not to distinguish scheduled backup from theft.

C:

Transfer volume and destination age become meaningful when tied to endpoint actions. It would investigate suspected web data exfiltration, but it would not distinguish scheduled backup from theft.

Question 69

EDR observes a trusted process allocating executable memory and injecting a remote thread. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Examine injection evidence and source process trust before declaring a fileless compromise.
  2. Compare approved change timing and query telemetry before treating usage as cryptomining.
  3. Preserve crash and driver load artifacts and block unapproved kernel components.
  4. Collect process memory and creation data to identify the source of resource exhaustion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Process injection can bypass simple file hash detections. Triage executable memory injection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Performance anomalies may arise from authorized application changes. It would distinguish workload spike from suspicious process, but it would not triage executable memory injection.

C:

Privileged driver execution can compromise host integrity beyond ordinary user code. It could help investigate suspicious kernel driver loading, but it would not triage executable memory injection.

D:

Memory growth with process churn can signal malicious code or faulty services. That is relevant to memory pressure and execution indicators, not to triage executable memory injection.

Question 70

Multiple laptops gain identical unknown startup scripts after a shared software image update. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Inspect extension publisher, permissions and deployment source before disabling suspected abuse.
  2. Compare golden image hash and deployment change record before declaring distributed malware.
  3. Verify actual process creation and child actions rather than assuming execution.
  4. Preserve the hosts-file modification and restore known trusted name resolution.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Shared deployment error can explain coordinated startup changes across devices. Distinguish image rollout change from distributed compromise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Browser extensions can read sensitive web data when granted sweeping permissions. It would investigate unapproved broad-permission browser extension, but it would not distinguish image rollout change from distributed compromise.

C:

Prevention events do not necessarily indicate successful payload launch. That is relevant to suspicious persistence across endpoints, not to distinguish image rollout change from distributed compromise.

D:

Host-file tampering can redirect sensitive requests outside DNS controls. It would identify endpoint hosts-file redirection, but it would not distinguish image rollout change from distributed compromise.


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