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CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test 6

Question 50

A firewall stops forwarding after its verbose debug logging fills its partition. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Normalize ingestion timestamps to a common time standard while retaining source time.
  2. Reduce excessive debug verbosity and restore log forwarding with retention controls.
  3. Confirm UTC normalization and repair NTP synchronization before sequencing alerts.
  4. Enable the required process audit categories and verify event collection.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Logging volume can exhaust storage and disrupt security telemetry. Restore telemetry after log volume exhaustion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Consistent time normalization prevents false event ordering across time zones. It could help reconcile mixed timezone formats, but it would not restore telemetry after log volume exhaustion.

C:

Clock drift makes correlated identity and endpoint event order unreliable. It would correct cross-source event time skew, but it would not restore telemetry after log volume exhaustion.

D:

Missing audit coverage cannot be reconstructed from coarse severity logs. It could help expand audited operating-system events, but it would not restore telemetry after log volume exhaustion.

Question 51

A private key is discovered in a publicly readable backup archive. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Apply DLP policies to authorized export destinations and monitor sensitive data movement.
  2. Check certificate subject names and replace the misissued binding before trusting the service.
  3. Revoke or replace the exposed certificate credentials and protect the backup.
  4. Exempt the pinned flow under approved policy and obtain endpoint or network metadata.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Disclosure of a private key invalidates its secrecy even before observed abuse. Respond to exposed signing key.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Encryption at rest alone cannot stop misuse after decryption. That is relevant to certificate and encryption telemetry, not to respond to exposed signing key.

B:

A trusted issuer does not repair a hostname identity mismatch. It would remediate TLS hostname mismatch, but it would not respond to exposed signing key.

D:

Certificate pinning can prevent decryption while alternate telemetry preserves monitoring. That is relevant to certificate and encryption telemetry, not to respond to exposed signing key.

Question 52

A new SaaS OAuth grant requests mailbox read permissions unrelated to the application. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Revoke active sessions and verify token revocation or conditional access behavior.
  2. Validate emergency authorization and record the privileged session for review.
  3. Correlate the source, user, MFA result and subsequent activity before declaring compromise.
  4. Review and revoke excessive consent and restrict high-risk app grants.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

OAuth delegation can expose data without new password sign-ins. Control excessive delegated app permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Existing issued tokens can outlive an identity state change. It would invalidate persistent access tokens, but it would not control excessive delegated app permissions.

B:

Emergency accounts require explicit high-signal governance despite legitimate uses. It could help investigate break-glass account use, but it would not control excessive delegated app permissions.

C:

Authentication success after failures needs contextual validation rather than automatic certainty. That is relevant to identity telemetry and session anomalies, not to control excessive delegated app permissions.

Question 53

A firewall rule permits inbound management from the entire internet to a production VM. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Remove unrestricted inbound access and allow only approved bastion source ranges.
  2. Compare capture vantage points, NAT translations and timestamps.
  3. Enforce approved DNS and route controls for managed remote sessions.
  4. Correlate identity-provider change logs and enforce attributable administrative actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Narrow administrative exposure reduces remote attack surface. Restrict exposed production management.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Address translation and observation location can explain apparently inconsistent traffic records. That is relevant to network security policy validation, not to restrict exposed production management.

C:

Uncontrolled name resolution can evade monitoring and filtering. It would prevent remote DNS policy bypass, but it would not restrict exposed production management.

D:

Policy audit trails need a responsible actor for investigation. It could help restore attribution for network policy changes, but it would not restrict exposed production management.

Question 54

A server emits only critical alerts although analysts need process-creation evidence. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Normalize ingestion timestamps to a common time standard while retaining source time.
  2. Enable the required process audit categories and verify event collection.
  3. Reduce excessive debug verbosity and restore log forwarding with retention controls.
  4. Confirm UTC normalization and repair NTP synchronization before sequencing alerts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Missing audit coverage cannot be reconstructed from coarse severity logs. Expand audited operating-system events.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Consistent time normalization prevents false event ordering across time zones. That is relevant to cross-platform log clock accuracy, not to expand audited operating-system events.

C:

Logging volume can exhaust storage and disrupt security telemetry. It could help restore telemetry after log volume exhaustion, but it would not expand audited operating-system events.

D:

Clock drift makes correlated identity and endpoint event order unreliable. That is relevant to cross-platform log clock accuracy, not to expand audited operating-system events.

Question 55

An application sends logs over unencrypted syslog through a shared provider network. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Fix and test parsing of the destination field using representative source events.
  2. Deduplicate on source event identifiers before correlation.
  3. Use authenticated encrypted log transport and protected receiver access.
  4. Restore buffered collection where available and label the evidence gap explicitly.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Integrity and confidentiality prevent interception or tampering in transit. Secure telemetry transport.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A parser losing essential fields breaks downstream detection conditions. It would repair normalized destination field, but it would not secure telemetry transport.

B:

Duplicate ingestion inflates counts and obscures actual incident scope. It could help remove duplicate SIEM events, but it would not secure telemetry transport.

D:

Gaps must be recognized instead of inventing a complete timeline. It would assess incomplete event collection, but it would not secure telemetry transport.

Question 56

A TLS inspection proxy silently fails on a pinning-protected payment client. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Revoke or replace the exposed certificate credentials and protect the backup.
  2. Apply DLP policies to authorized export destinations and monitor sensitive data movement.
  3. Check certificate subject names and replace the misissued binding before trusting the service.
  4. Exempt the pinned flow under approved policy and obtain endpoint or network metadata.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Certificate pinning can prevent decryption while alternate telemetry preserves monitoring. Handle certificate pinning visibility limits.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Disclosure of a private key invalidates its secrecy even before observed abuse. It could help respond to exposed signing key, but it would not handle certificate pinning visibility limits.

B:

Encryption at rest alone cannot stop misuse after decryption. That is relevant to certificate and encryption telemetry, not to handle certificate pinning visibility limits.

C:

A trusted issuer does not repair a hostname identity mismatch. It would remediate TLS hostname mismatch, but it would not handle certificate pinning visibility limits.

Question 57

A file is tagged public although it contains employee government identification numbers. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Reclassify the data and apply access and retention restrictions for regulated PII.
  2. Redact secrets at the logging source and rotate credentials already exposed.
  3. Reassess classification and data sharing because reidentification risk has changed.
  4. Quarantine the outbound transfer and validate the DLP match against approved business need.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Sensitive-data controls depend on the actual content, not an inaccurate label. Correct mislabeled personally identifiable data.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Reducing log retention does not mitigate tokens copied into log events. It would remove secrets from diagnostic logs, but it would not correct mislabeled personally identifiable data.

C:

Combining datasets can turn apparently anonymous records into personal data. It could help detect new reidentification risk, but it would not correct mislabeled personally identifiable data.

D:

DLP action should prevent likely CHD leakage while preserving review. That is relevant to data classification and handling, not to correct mislabeled personally identifiable data.

Question 58

Linux hosts gain an unauthorized systemd service with an unusual ExecStart command. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Inspect the autorun value, signer and process ancestry against the approved baseline.
  2. Review the unit file, executable path and deployment history.
  3. Compare the change with authorized configuration management and restore audit enforcement.
  4. Decode the command safely and correlate task creator, process tree and network activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Service persistence can blend into normal boot behavior unless baselined. Investigate suspicious Linux service installation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Registry startup entries can provide persistence and warrant source validation. It would investigate registry autorun persistence, but it would not investigate suspicious Linux service installation.

C:

Unapproved audit weakening removes visibility into subsequent activity. That is relevant to os persistence and baseline evidence, not to investigate suspicious Linux service installation.

D:

Encoded text alone is not proof, but linked execution context exposes intent. It would correlate PowerShell encoded execution, but it would not investigate suspicious Linux service installation.

Question 59

Repeated failed logins followed by success originate from one foreign proxy. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Revoke active sessions and verify token revocation or conditional access behavior.
  2. Review and revoke excessive consent and restrict high-risk app grants.
  3. Correlate the source, user, MFA result and subsequent activity before declaring compromise.
  4. Validate emergency authorization and record the privileged session for review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authentication success after failures needs contextual validation rather than automatic certainty. Triage password-spray-like authentication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Existing issued tokens can outlive an identity state change. It could help invalidate persistent access tokens, but it would not triage password-spray-like authentication.

B:

OAuth delegation can expose data without new password sign-ins. That is relevant to identity telemetry and session anomalies, not to triage password-spray-like authentication.

D:

Emergency accounts require explicit high-signal governance despite legitimate uses. It could help investigate break-glass account use, but it would not triage password-spray-like authentication.

Question 60

A database backup agent uses a shared high-privilege local account on every host. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Compare membership change events with approved requests and remediate excessive grants.
  2. Inspect EDR process creation and quarantine records before concluding execution occurred.
  3. Apply endpoint DLP or removable-media policy for the identified sensitive groups.
  4. Replace the shared credential with scoped identities and rotate existing secrets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Shared elevated identities increase lateral movement exposure and reduce attribution. Remove shared backup service credential.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Privileged group drift can stem from faulty automation or abuse. That is relevant to endpoint controls and data paths, not to remove shared backup service credential.

B:

A detection or quarantine alone does not establish successful execution. It would distinguish file detection from executed process, but it would not remove shared backup service credential.

C:

Controls at the endpoint can enforce transfer restrictions before data leaves. It could help enforce removable-media data controls, but it would not remove shared backup service credential.


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