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CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test 12

Question 110

Internal hosts query random long subdomains with high entropy at steady intervals. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Enrich DNS resolutions with reputation and passive-DNS history before blocking infrastructure.
  2. Correlate query lengths, unique labels and host process evidence for DNS tunneling.
  3. Review queried domains and process tree for domain-generation-algorithm behavior.
  4. Check the new vendor's documented TXT discovery behavior before classifying maliciousness.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unusual high-entropy subdomain streams can carry encoded data through DNS. Triage DNS tunneling pattern.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rapid answer churn may indicate resilient malicious hosting rather than routine CDN use. It could help evaluate suspicious fast-flux DNS, but it would not triage DNS tunneling pattern.

C:

Repeated failed pseudo-random lookups are common to generated rendezvous attempts. It would test DGA-driven lookup hypothesis, but it would not triage DNS tunneling pattern.

D:

Legitimate service discovery can use TXT records and must be distinguished by context. It could help validate benign TXT query spike, but it would not triage DNS tunneling pattern.

Question 111

A security sensor reports a TXT query spike from one server after a software upgrade. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Review queried domains and process tree for domain-generation-algorithm behavior.
  2. Correlate query lengths, unique labels and host process evidence for DNS tunneling.
  3. Check the new vendor's documented TXT discovery behavior before classifying maliciousness.
  4. Enrich DNS resolutions with reputation and passive-DNS history before blocking infrastructure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Legitimate service discovery can use TXT records and must be distinguished by context. Validate benign TXT query spike.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Repeated failed pseudo-random lookups are common to generated rendezvous attempts. That is relevant to dns behavior and tunneling, not to validate benign TXT query spike.

B:

Unusual high-entropy subdomain streams can carry encoded data through DNS. It would triage DNS tunneling pattern, but it would not validate benign TXT query spike.

D:

Rapid answer churn may indicate resilient malicious hosting rather than routine CDN use. That is relevant to dns behavior and tunneling, not to validate benign TXT query spike.

Question 112

Many accounts receive one password attempt each from a shared source address. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Investigate authentication-method claims and conditional-access exclusions for the session.
  2. Aggregate failures by account and client fingerprints rather than source IP alone.
  3. Evaluate token usage, VPN egress and device identifiers before labeling impossible travel.
  4. Correlate failures by source and timeframe to identify password spraying across identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Breadth across users with low per-user volume is characteristic of spraying. Detect distributed-account password spray.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unexpected exemption or token trust may permit high-risk authentication bypass. It would triage missing privileged MFA challenge, but it would not detect distributed-account password spray.

B:

IP rotation can disguise high-frequency credential guessing against one account. It could help detect distributed-source account brute force, but it would not detect distributed-account password spray.

C:

Geographic velocity is suspicious but shared VPN exits can create false positives. That is relevant to authentication attack patterns, not to detect distributed-account password spray.

Question 113

An internal switch exhibits a broadcast storm immediately after an unauthorized bridge is connected. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Isolate the rogue bridge and validate spanning-tree and loop prevention telemetry.
  2. Correlate database change time, pool errors and transaction latency before calling it an attack.
  3. Examine SYN backlog and source distribution, then activate appropriate SYN-flood protection.
  4. Assess traffic distribution and application resource saturation before applying rate limits.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Layer-two loops can overwhelm a LAN without any attacker C2 traffic. Diagnose switching-loop disruption.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Service interruption alone is insufficient to prove hostile traffic. That is relevant to network denial and disruption, not to diagnose switching-loop disruption.

C:

Unfinished TCP handshakes can exhaust connection state resources. It would identify TCP SYN flooding, but it would not diagnose switching-loop disruption.

D:

Distributed request floods require distinction from legitimate demand spikes. It could help triage distributed application-layer denial, but it would not diagnose switching-loop disruption.

Question 114

A Kubernetes service account launches privileged pods despite a namespace policy. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Check consent grants, effective scopes and outbound message records for abuse.
  2. Review API audit caller and admission policy exceptions for privilege escalation.
  3. Link cloud API creation, instance metadata and process telemetry to the initiating identity.
  4. Correlate the access-key identity, source network, bucket permissions and downloaded bytes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Container privilege requests are meaningful only with RBAC and admission context. Investigate unauthorized privileged pod launch.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Delegated app permissions enable mailbox operations without interactive sign-ins. That is relevant to cloud abuse patterns, not to investigate unauthorized privileged pod launch.

C:

Abuse can cross control-plane provisioning and guest execution. It could help correlate suspicious cloud provisioning, but it would not investigate unauthorized privileged pod launch.

D:

Unexpected mass object access may indicate stolen cloud credentials. That is relevant to cloud abuse patterns, not to investigate unauthorized privileged pod launch.

Question 115

A file server exhausts memory while unknown processes repeatedly spawn and terminate. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Examine injection evidence and source process trust before declaring a fileless compromise.
  2. Preserve crash and driver load artifacts and block unapproved kernel components.
  3. Collect process memory and creation data to identify the source of resource exhaustion.
  4. Compare approved change timing and query telemetry before treating usage as cryptomining.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Memory growth with process churn can signal malicious code or faulty services. Investigate host memory exhaustion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Process injection can bypass simple file hash detections. It would triage executable memory injection, but it would not investigate host memory exhaustion.

B:

Privileged driver execution can compromise host integrity beyond ordinary user code. It could help investigate suspicious kernel driver loading, but it would not investigate host memory exhaustion.

D:

Performance anomalies may arise from authorized application changes. It would distinguish workload spike from suspicious process, but it would not investigate host memory exhaustion.

Question 116

A finance workstation gains hundreds of files with a new extension and ransom-note text. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Correlate exclusion modification, token privileges and subsequent file activity.
  2. Revoke the unauthorized key and identify who modified the account file.
  3. Reconstruct ACL changes and correlate file reads with transfer records.
  4. Isolate the host promptly and preserve process and file-rename evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Rapid mass renaming plus extortion artifacts signals probable ransomware. Respond to ransomware file-change signature.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Attackers may weaken protection to stage malicious executables. It could help detect endpoint protection exclusion tampering, but it would not respond to ransomware file-change signature.

B:

Added trust keys can provide ongoing access without password events. That is relevant to file-system and registry anomalies, not to respond to ransomware file-change signature.

C:

Unauthorized permissions plus exfiltration activity suggests deliberate staging. It would investigate file-share permission abuse, but it would not respond to ransomware file-change signature.

Question 117

A threat intelligence feed flags a former malicious IP now assigned to a major cloud provider. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Check first-seen, last-seen and current service ownership before taking action.
  2. Confirm the approved engagement scope and timing before downgrading severity.
  3. Investigate the source process and destination response pattern for network sweep activity.
  4. Preserve the interaction sequence and isolate honeypot telemetry from production credentials.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Reputation can become stale when infrastructure addresses are reassigned. Challenge stale indicator attribution.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Authorized assessment traffic can resemble hostile reconnaissance. It would verify approved red-team scanning, but it would not challenge stale indicator attribution.

C:

Ordered horizontal probing suggests enumeration and possible pivot preparation. It could help detect management subnet sweep, but it would not challenge stale indicator attribution.

D:

Decoy interaction can reveal attack behavior but must not introduce real access. That is relevant to honeypot and reconnaissance indicators, not to challenge stale indicator attribution.

Question 118

A company SSID appears on a stronger rogue access point with an unfamiliar BSSID. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Correlate switch port, DHCP fingerprint and known printer management data.
  2. Validate the transmitter location and certificate/authentication behavior for evil-twin activity.
  3. Validate endpoint policy telemetry and disable prohibited alternate network paths.
  4. Capture wireless management traffic and compare with approved controller activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Matching SSID alone cannot establish access-point legitimacy. Identify potential evil-twin wireless access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

MAC addresses can be forged and require corroborating device identity. It would detect suspected MAC spoofing, but it would not identify potential evil-twin wireless access.

C:

Uncontrolled hotspot access can bypass enterprise segmentation and monitoring. That is relevant to wireless and rogue device indicators, not to identify potential evil-twin wireless access.

D:

Excessive unauthenticated deauth frames may disrupt service or support interception attacks. It would investigate wireless deauthentication flood, but it would not identify potential evil-twin wireless access.

Question 119

One user receives hundreds of password attempts from a rotating proxy pool. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Investigate authentication-method claims and conditional-access exclusions for the session.
  2. Correlate failures by source and timeframe to identify password spraying across identities.
  3. Aggregate failures by account and client fingerprints rather than source IP alone.
  4. Evaluate token usage, VPN egress and device identifiers before labeling impossible travel.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

IP rotation can disguise high-frequency credential guessing against one account. Detect distributed-source account brute force.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unexpected exemption or token trust may permit high-risk authentication bypass. It could help triage missing privileged MFA challenge, but it would not detect distributed-source account brute force.

B:

Breadth across users with low per-user volume is characteristic of spraying. That is relevant to authentication attack patterns, not to detect distributed-source account brute force.

D:

Geographic velocity is suspicious but shared VPN exits can create false positives. It could help validate impossible-travel detection, but it would not detect distributed-source account brute force.

Question 120

Windows defender exclusions change immediately after a suspicious admin token is used. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Revoke the unauthorized key and identify who modified the account file.
  2. Reconstruct ACL changes and correlate file reads with transfer records.
  3. Isolate the host promptly and preserve process and file-rename evidence.
  4. Correlate exclusion modification, token privileges and subsequent file activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Attackers may weaken protection to stage malicious executables. Detect endpoint protection exclusion tampering.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Added trust keys can provide ongoing access without password events. That is relevant to file-system and registry anomalies, not to detect endpoint protection exclusion tampering.

B:

Unauthorized permissions plus exfiltration activity suggests deliberate staging. It would investigate file-share permission abuse, but it would not detect endpoint protection exclusion tampering.

C:

Rapid mass renaming plus extortion artifacts signals probable ransomware. It could help respond to ransomware file-change signature, but it would not detect endpoint protection exclusion tampering.


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