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Last Update: Oct 24, 2026

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CompTIA CAS-005 Practice Test 24

Question 230

A function for invoice formatting has permissions to list every storage bucket in the account. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.
  2. Scope its execution role to the one input/output resource set.
  3. Enable protected execution telemetry and control-plane logs.
  4. Redact sensitive log fields and rotate exposed credentials.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Short-lived compute still needs least privilege. The controlling fact is: A function for invoice formatting has permissions to list every storage bucket in the account.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Using recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets would not scope its execution role to the one input/output resource set.

C:

Serverless events need central retention for investigation. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: failed function executions disappear because no shared audit collector receives events. The proper immediate action is to scope its execution role to the one input/output resource set.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Scope its execution role to the one input/output resource set.

Question 231

A cloud service holds keys for one tenant but another tenant can invoke decrypt under a broad policy. Which control or decision MOST directly resolves the stated gap?

  1. Select compliant key and data locality settings together.
  2. Choose a supported customer-managed key design and test revocation.
  3. Bind key permissions to tenant identity and encryption context.
  4. Execute authorized lifecycle deletion and assess cryptographic erasure conditions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Key use must be authorized per principal and purpose. The controlling fact is: A cloud service holds keys for one tenant but another tenant can invoke decrypt under a broad policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Selecting compliant key and data locality settings together would not address the need for bind key permissions to tenant identity and encryption context.

B:

The current facts call for this action: bind key permissions to tenant identity and encryption context.

D:

Execute authorized lifecycle deletion and assess cryptographic erasure conditions would not address the need for bind key permissions to tenant identity and encryption context.

Question 232

An organization discovers employees sharing documents to an unsanctioned file storage service. What is the appropriate security response for this scenario?

  1. Time-box exceptions with owner review and telemetry.
  2. Choose API-based CASB integration with provider-supported inspection.
  3. Use proxy-based session controls and trusted identity context where permitted.
  4. Use CASB discovery and enforce approved destination policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Shadow cloud visibility must inform sanctioned data handling. The controlling fact is: An organization discovers employees sharing documents to an unsanctioned file storage service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Use CASB discovery and enforce approved destination policies.

B:

The current facts call for this action: use CASB discovery and enforce approved destination policies.

C:

Inline controls need attributable access context. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a secure web gateway sees risky uploads but lacks identity mapping for unmanaged browsers. The proper immediate action is to use CASB discovery and enforce approved destination policies.

Question 233

Terraform grants anonymous read access to a data store despite a compliant runtime dashboard. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Add predeployment policy-as-code checks and fix the IaC source.
  2. Reconcile authorized state and enforce guardrailed drift remediation.
  3. Require approved plan inspection and protected deployment identity.
  4. Use protected credential injection and per-service identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Correcting only the deployed asset allows the flaw to return. The controlling fact is: Terraform grants anonymous read access to a data store despite a compliant runtime dashboard.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: add predeployment policy-as-code checks and fix the IaC source.

C:

Infrastructure changes need traceable review and scope. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a cloud environment applies broad policy changes from a developer branch without review. The proper immediate action is to add predeployment policy-as-code checks and fix the IaC source.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Add predeployment policy-as-code checks and fix the IaC source.

Question 234

A managed database provider patches its infrastructure but customer-defined public network ACLs remain wide open. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Test customer data restoration and define recovery ownership explicitly.
  2. Correct customer-managed exposure and validate provider control boundaries.
  3. Assess the application's own access and data controls.
  4. Require contract-aligned processing transparency and transfer review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Managed service does not transfer all customer configuration risk. The controlling fact is: A managed database provider patches its infrastructure but customer-defined public network ACLs remain wide open.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Testing customer data restoration and defining recovery ownership explicitly would not correct customer-managed exposure and validate provider control boundaries.

C:

Provider assurance cannot certify customer code. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a provider's infrastructure SOC report excludes a customer's exposed API endpoint. The proper immediate action is to correct customer-managed exposure and validate provider control boundaries.

D:

Requiring contract-aligned processing transparency and transferring review would not correct customer-managed exposure and validate provider control boundaries.

Question 235

A container image uses the floating latest tag with unreviewed dependencies. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Rebuild and test on maintained base layers with dependency tracking.
  2. Move secrets into ephemeral protected build-time mechanisms.
  3. Pin immutable digests and verify signed image provenance.
  4. Enforce admission rules that prohibit unnecessary host privileges.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Unpinned tags can change deployment content silently. The controlling fact is: A container image uses the floating latest tag with unreviewed dependencies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rebuilding and testing on maintained base layers with dependency tracking would not address the need for immutable evidence retention.

B:

The current facts call for this action: pin immutable digests and verify signed image provenance.

D:

Enforcing admission rules that prohibit unnecessary host privileges would not address the need for immutable evidence retention.

Question 236

A regulated archive must retain data in a named country while using multi-region replication. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Bind key permissions to tenant identity and encryption context.
  2. Execute authorized lifecycle deletion and assess cryptographic erasure conditions.
  3. Choose a supported customer-managed key design and test revocation.
  4. Select compliant key and data locality settings together.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Data residency must cover replicas and key service dependencies. The controlling fact is: A regulated archive must retain data in a named country while using multi-region replication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Select compliant key and data locality settings together.

B:

The current facts call for this action: select compliant key and data locality settings together.

C:

Key ownership changes operational control and responsibility. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a service uses provider-managed keys despite contractually required customer revocation control. The proper immediate action is to select compliant key and data locality settings together.

Question 237

Ansible deployment tasks use shared SSH secrets stored in the repository. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Use protected credential injection and per-service identities.
  2. Require approved plan inspection and protected deployment identity.
  3. Reconcile authorized state and enforce guardrailed drift remediation.
  4. Add predeployment policy-as-code checks and fix the IaC source.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Automated deployment must respect secret-management boundaries. The controlling fact is: Ansible deployment tasks use shared SSH secrets stored in the repository.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: use protected credential injection and per-service identities.

C:

Unreviewed drift can silently expand exposure. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a drift scanner finds public ports opened by emergency console changes. The proper immediate action is to use protected credential injection and per-service identities.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Use protected credential injection and per-service identities.

Question 238

A company needs to review SaaS files stored by remote users without inline web interception. Which control or decision MOST directly resolves the stated gap?

  1. Use proxy-based session controls and trusted identity context where permitted.
  2. Choose API-based CASB integration with provider-supported inspection.
  3. Time-box exceptions with owner review and telemetry.
  4. Use CASB discovery and enforce approved destination policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Out-of-band APIs can inspect at-rest SaaS content. The controlling fact is: A company needs to review SaaS files stored by remote users without inline web interception.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Using proxy-based session controls and trusted identity context where permitted would not meet the need for aPI-based CASB integration with provider-supported inspection.

C:

Persistent exceptions can become new default exposures. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a partner integration uses a CASB exception that never expires. The proper immediate action is to choose API-based CASB integration with provider-supported inspection.

D:

Using CASB discovery and enforcing approved destination policies would not meet the need for aPI-based CASB integration with provider-supported inspection.

Question 239

An API gateway limit is keyed only to a spoofable client-supplied header. What is the appropriate security response for this scenario?

  1. Validate nonce/timestamp and reject stale repeated operations.
  2. Redact secrets at collection and rotate exposed tokens.
  3. Use authenticated identity and trusted source controls for quotas.
  4. Enforce object-level authorization at the API data access layer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Rate limits are ineffective when keys are attacker-controlled. The controlling fact is: An API gateway limit is keyed only to a spoofable client-supplied header.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Validating nonce/timestamp and rejecting stale repeated operations would not meet the need for authenticated identity and trusted source controls for quotas.

B:

The current facts call for this action: use authenticated identity and trusted source controls for quotas.

D:

Enforcing object-level authorization at the API data access layer would not meet the need for authenticated identity and trusted source controls for quotas.

Question 240

An event-triggered function can call itself recursively through an output event. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Redact sensitive log fields and rotate exposed credentials.
  2. Scope its execution role to the one input/output resource set.
  3. Enable protected execution telemetry and control-plane logs.
  4. Use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Unbounded event loops threaten availability and cost. The controlling fact is: An event-triggered function can call itself recursively through an output event.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.

B:

The current facts call for this action: use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.

C:

Serverless events need central retention for investigation. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: failed function executions disappear because no shared audit collector receives events. The proper immediate action is to use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.


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