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CAS-005 Premium File: 482 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 24, 2026

CAS-005 Training Course: 180 Video Lectures

CAS-005 PDF Study Guide: 903 Pages

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CompTIA CAS-005 Practice Test 25

Question 240

An event-triggered function can call itself recursively through an output event. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Redact sensitive log fields and rotate exposed credentials.
  2. Scope its execution role to the one input/output resource set.
  3. Enable protected execution telemetry and control-plane logs.
  4. Use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Unbounded event loops threaten availability and cost. The controlling fact is: An event-triggered function can call itself recursively through an output event.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.

B:

The current facts call for this action: use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.

C:

Serverless events need central retention for investigation. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: failed function executions disappear because no shared audit collector receives events. The proper immediate action is to use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.

Question 241

A SaaS vendor stores regulated records but refuses to supply its actual subprocessor list. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Require contract-aligned processing transparency and transfer review.
  2. Correct customer-managed exposure and validate provider control boundaries.
  3. Assess the application's own access and data controls.
  4. Test customer data restoration and define recovery ownership explicitly.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Hosted software still entails supplier and jurisdiction risk. The controlling fact is: A SaaS vendor stores regulated records but refuses to supply its actual subprocessor list.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: require contract-aligned processing transparency and transfer review.

C:

Provider assurance cannot certify customer code. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a provider's infrastructure SOC report excludes a customer's exposed API endpoint. The proper immediate action is to require contract-aligned processing transparency and transfer review.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Require contract-aligned processing transparency and transfer review.

Question 242

An orchestration workload requests privilege escalation and host networking without an operational need. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Pin immutable digests and verify signed image provenance.
  2. Enforce admission rules that prohibit unnecessary host privileges.
  3. Rebuild and test on maintained base layers with dependency tracking.
  4. Move secrets into ephemeral protected build-time mechanisms.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Container isolation depends on runtime policy. The controlling fact is: An orchestration workload requests privilege escalation and host networking without an operational need.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Immutable evidence retention would not enforce admission rules that prohibit unnecessary host privileges.

C:

Inherited OS packages are part of runtime exposure. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a deployment uses a vulnerable base image not refreshed by source code updates. The proper immediate action is to enforce admission rules that prohibit unnecessary host privileges.

D:

Moving secrets into ephemeral protected build-time mechanisms would not enforce admission rules that prohibit unnecessary host privileges.

Question 243

A customer requests deletion but encrypted snapshots remain recoverable under active keys. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Bind key permissions to tenant identity and encryption context.
  2. Choose a supported customer-managed key design and test revocation.
  3. Execute authorized lifecycle deletion and assess cryptographic erasure conditions.
  4. Select compliant key and data locality settings together.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Keys and copies jointly determine recoverability. The controlling fact is: A customer requests deletion but encrypted snapshots remain recoverable under active keys.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Bind key permissions to tenant identity and encryption context would not address the need for execute authorized lifecycle deletion and assess cryptographic erasure conditions.

B:

The current facts call for this action: execute authorized lifecycle deletion and assess cryptographic erasure conditions.

D:

Selecting compliant key and data locality settings together would not address the need for execute authorized lifecycle deletion and assess cryptographic erasure conditions.

Question 244

A cloud customer assumes provider backup guarantees application-consistent recovery. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Assess the application's own access and data controls.
  2. Require contract-aligned processing transparency and transfer review.
  3. Correct customer-managed exposure and validate provider control boundaries.
  4. Test customer data restoration and define recovery ownership explicitly.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Service uptime and application recoverability are different responsibilities. The controlling fact is: A cloud customer assumes provider backup guarantees application-consistent recovery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Test customer data restoration and define recovery ownership explicitly.

B:

The current facts call for this action: test customer data restoration and define recovery ownership explicitly.

C:

Managed service does not transfer all customer configuration risk. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a managed database provider patches its infrastructure but customer-defined public network ACLs remain wide open. The proper immediate action is to test customer data restoration and define recovery ownership explicitly.

Question 245

A drift scanner finds public ports opened by emergency console changes. Which control or decision MOST directly resolves the stated gap?

  1. Reconcile authorized state and enforce guardrailed drift remediation.
  2. Add predeployment policy-as-code checks and fix the IaC source.
  3. Use protected credential injection and per-service identities.
  4. Require approved plan inspection and protected deployment identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Unreviewed drift can silently expand exposure. The controlling fact is: A drift scanner finds public ports opened by emergency console changes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: reconcile authorized state and enforce guardrailed drift remediation.

C:

Automated deployment must respect secret-management boundaries. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: ansible deployment tasks use shared SSH secrets stored in the repository. The proper immediate action is to reconcile authorized state and enforce guardrailed drift remediation.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Reconcile authorized state and enforce guardrailed drift remediation.

Question 246

A secure web gateway sees risky uploads but lacks identity mapping for unmanaged browsers. What is the appropriate security response for this scenario?

  1. Time-box exceptions with owner review and telemetry.
  2. Use proxy-based session controls and trusted identity context where permitted.
  3. Choose API-based CASB integration with provider-supported inspection.
  4. Use CASB discovery and enforce approved destination policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inline controls need attributable access context. The controlling fact is: A secure web gateway sees risky uploads but lacks identity mapping for unmanaged browsers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Time-box exceptions with owner review and telemetry would not meet the need for proxy-based session controls and trusted identity context where permitted.

C:

Out-of-band APIs can inspect at-rest SaaS content. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a company needs to review SaaS files stored by remote users without inline web interception. The proper immediate action is to use proxy-based session controls and trusted identity context where permitted.

D:

Using CASB discovery and enforcing approved destination policies would not meet the need for proxy-based session controls and trusted identity context where permitted.

Question 247

A serverless action logs customer bearer tokens at debug level. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Scope its execution role to the one input/output resource set.
  2. Enable protected execution telemetry and control-plane logs.
  3. Redact sensitive log fields and rotate exposed credentials.
  4. Use recursion guards, idempotency and execution budgets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Ephemeral functions can create persistent sensitive log records. The controlling fact is: A serverless action logs customer bearer tokens at debug level.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Scoping the execution role limits resource access, but it does not remove bearer tokens already recorded in debug logs.

B:

Protected telemetry could preserve more records, but the immediate problem is that the existing logs expose bearer tokens.

D:

Recursion guards and execution budgets control function behavior; they do not redact exposed credentials or rotate affected tokens.

Question 248

An API accepts replayed signed requests without verifying request age. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Enforce object-level authorization at the API data access layer.
  2. Use authenticated identity and trusted source controls for quotas.
  3. Redact secrets at collection and rotate exposed tokens.
  4. Validate nonce/timestamp and reject stale repeated operations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Message signatures alone do not prevent replay. The controlling fact is: An API accepts replayed signed requests without verifying request age.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Validate nonce/timestamp and reject stale repeated operations.

B:

The current facts call for this action: validate nonce/timestamp and reject stale repeated operations.

C:

Observability should not reveal authentication material. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a cloud API's error logs include full credentials from failed requests. The proper immediate action is to validate nonce/timestamp and reject stale repeated operations.

Question 249

A build pipeline scans image layers but leaks credentials through its build arguments. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Move secrets into ephemeral protected build-time mechanisms.
  2. Pin immutable digests and verify signed image provenance.
  3. Enforce admission rules that prohibit unnecessary host privileges.
  4. Rebuild and test on maintained base layers with dependency tracking.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Image scanning cannot undo leaked build secrets. The controlling fact is: A build pipeline scans image layers but leaks credentials through its build arguments.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: move secrets into ephemeral protected build-time mechanisms.

C:

Container isolation depends on runtime policy. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: an orchestration workload requests privilege escalation and host networking without an operational need. The proper immediate action is to move secrets into ephemeral protected build-time mechanisms.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Move secrets into ephemeral protected build-time mechanisms.

Question 250

A service uses provider-managed keys despite contractually required customer revocation control. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Select compliant key and data locality settings together.
  2. Choose a supported customer-managed key design and test revocation.
  3. Bind key permissions to tenant identity and encryption context.
  4. Execute authorized lifecycle deletion and assess cryptographic erasure conditions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Key ownership changes operational control and responsibility. The controlling fact is: A service uses provider-managed keys despite contractually required customer revocation control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Selecting compliant key and data locality settings together would not meet the need for a supported customer-managed key design and test revocation.

C:

Key use must be authorized per principal and purpose. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a cloud service holds keys for one tenant but another tenant can invoke decrypt under a broad policy. The proper immediate action is to choose a supported customer-managed key design and test revocation.

D:

Execute authorized lifecycle deletion and assess cryptographic erasure conditions would not meet the need for a supported customer-managed key design and test revocation.


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