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Last Update: Oct 24, 2026

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CompTIA CAS-005 Practice Test 22

Question 210

A terminated contractor still has an enabled local account in a downstream SaaS tenant. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Add proofing and authoritative approval before issuing the role.
  2. Automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.
  3. Require risk-based identity verification and audit the reset.
  4. Recertify entitlements and remove obsolete privileges.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Directory disablement is not always propagated to every service. The controlling fact is: A terminated contractor still has an enabled local account in a downstream SaaS tenant.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Adding proofing and authoritative approval would not address the need for automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.

C:

Reset routes are authentication control surfaces. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a help-desk password reset bypasses prior identity proofing for executive accounts. The proper immediate action is to automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.

D:

Recertify entitlements and remove obsolete privileges would not address the need for automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.

Question 211

A self-service identity workflow grants a finance role without verifying the requester's employment status. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Require risk-based identity verification and audit the reset.
  2. Automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.
  3. Add proofing and authoritative approval before issuing the role.
  4. Recertify entitlements and remove obsolete privileges.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Convenient provisioning must establish eligibility. The controlling fact is: A self-service identity workflow grants a finance role without verifying the requester's employment status.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Requiring risk-based identity verification and auditing the reset would not add proofing and authoritative approval.

B:

The current facts call for this action: add proofing and authoritative approval before issuing the role.

D:

Recertify entitlements and remove obsolete privileges would not add proofing and authoritative approval.

Question 212

An OIDC app accepts ID tokens from a different client application. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Repair federated subject mapping and reject ambiguous principal identities.
  2. Validate issuer, signature, audience and replay constraints at the service provider.
  3. Separate authentication federation from application role authorization.
  4. Bind issuer, audience and nonce to the intended client flow.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Tokens need context-specific verification. The controlling fact is: An OIDC app accepts ID tokens from a different client application.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Bind issuer, audience and nonce to the intended client flow.

B:

The current facts call for this action: bind issuer, audience and nonce to the intended client flow.

C:

Successful sign-in should not imply privilege. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: an enterprise uses SSO but each application assigns administrator rights by default. The proper immediate action is to bind issuer, audience and nonce to the intended client flow.

Question 213

A CA issues end-entity certificates without recording who approved enrollment. Which control or decision MOST directly resolves the stated gap?

  1. Require RA validation and issuance audit trails.
  2. Update the certificate chain and trust anchors using approved CA rollover.
  3. Evaluate approved OCSP stapling or reachable revocation infrastructure.
  4. Use the appropriate certificate profile and key usage for client identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Identity proofing precedes trusted certificate issuance. The controlling fact is: A CA issues end-entity certificates without recording who approved enrollment.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: require RA validation and issuance audit trails.

C:

Revocation availability affects authenticated session establishment. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: tLS handshakes stall because clients cannot query the revocation endpoint. The proper immediate action is to require RA validation and issuance audit trails.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Require RA validation and issuance audit trails.

Question 214

A medical device requires access based on clinician role, shift and ward assignment. What is the appropriate security response for this scenario?

  1. Replace discretionary permissions with centrally governed data policies.
  2. Use attribute-based authorization with current contextual claims.
  3. Apply mandatory classification and clearance control labels.
  4. Enforce separation of duties through approved role rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

RBAC alone may not express dynamic conditions. The controlling fact is: A medical device requires access based on clinician role, shift and ward assignment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Replacing discretionary permissions with centrally governed data policies would not meet the need for attribute-based authorization with current contextual claims.

C:

Discretionary sharing should not override mandatory restrictions. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a government document must be read only by personnel with clearance and need-to-know. The proper immediate action is to use attribute-based authorization with current contextual claims.

D:

Enforcing separation of duties through approved role rules would not meet the need for attribute-based authorization with current contextual claims.

Question 215

A user is removed from a privileged logical group but retains a shared break-glass password. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Enforce facility zone authorization rather than generic card validity.
  2. Attest the authenticator binding before granting privilege.
  3. Rotate shared credentials and review emergency access ownership.
  4. Replace shared codes with individual attributable credentials.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Logical deprovisioning does not revoke shared secrets. The controlling fact is: A user is removed from a privileged logical group but retains a shared break-glass password.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enforcing facility zone authorization rather than generic card validity would not address the need for credential management. Logical deprovisioning does not revoke shared secrets.

B:

The current facts call for this action: rotate shared credentials and review emergency access ownership.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Rotate shared credentials and review emergency access ownership.

Question 216

A user logs in from a managed laptop but requests a data export classified highly restricted. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Verify policy enforcement point behavior with explicit deny tests.
  2. Use trusted network metadata and authenticated device signals.
  3. Reevaluate session authorization based on current device posture.
  4. Apply resource-sensitive step-up policy and approval gates.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Context must reflect data consequence as well as user identity. The controlling fact is: A user logs in from a managed laptop but requests a data export classified highly restricted.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Apply resource-sensitive step-up policy and approval gates.

B:

The current facts call for this action: apply resource-sensitive step-up policy and approval gates.

C:

Security state can change after initial authentication. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a trusted device becomes noncompliant mid-session but keeps privileged SaaS access. The proper immediate action is to apply resource-sensitive step-up policy and approval gates.

Question 217

A door system logs staff entries using only a communal access code. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Replace shared codes with individual attributable credentials.
  2. Attest the authenticator binding before granting privilege.
  3. Rotate shared credentials and review emergency access ownership.
  4. Enforce facility zone authorization rather than generic card validity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Identity accountability matters in physical access systems. The controlling fact is: A door system logs staff entries using only a communal access code.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: replace shared codes with individual attributable credentials.

C:

Logical deprovisioning does not revoke shared secrets. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a user is removed from a privileged logical group but retains a shared break-glass password. The proper immediate action is to replace shared codes with individual attributable credentials.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Replace shared codes with individual attributable credentials.

Question 218

An enterprise uses SSO but each application assigns administrator rights by default. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Validate issuer, signature, audience and replay constraints at the service provider.
  2. Separate authentication federation from application role authorization.
  3. Bind issuer, audience and nonce to the intended client flow.
  4. Repair federated subject mapping and reject ambiguous principal identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Successful sign-in should not imply privilege. The controlling fact is: An enterprise uses SSO but each application assigns administrator rights by default.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Validating issuer, signature, audience and replay constraints at the service provider would not separate authentication federation from application role authorization.

C:

Tokens need context-specific verification. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: an OIDC app accepts ID tokens from a different client application. The proper immediate action is to separate authentication federation from application role authorization.

D:

Repairing federated subject mapping and rejecting ambiguous principal identities would not separate authentication federation from application role authorization.

Question 219

A help-desk password reset bypasses prior identity proofing for executive accounts. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Add proofing and authoritative approval before issuing the role.
  2. Automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.
  3. Require risk-based identity verification and audit the reset.
  4. Recertify entitlements and remove obsolete privileges.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Reset routes are authentication control surfaces. The controlling fact is: A help-desk password reset bypasses prior identity proofing for executive accounts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Adding proofing and authoritative approval would not require risk-based identity verification and audit the reset.

B:

The current facts call for this action: require risk-based identity verification and audit the reset.

D:

Recertify entitlements and remove obsolete privileges would not require risk-based identity verification and audit the reset.

Question 220

TLS handshakes stall because clients cannot query the revocation endpoint. Which control or decision MOST directly resolves the stated gap?

  1. Require RA validation and issuance audit trails.
  2. Use the appropriate certificate profile and key usage for client identity.
  3. Update the certificate chain and trust anchors using approved CA rollover.
  4. Evaluate approved OCSP stapling or reachable revocation infrastructure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Revocation availability affects authenticated session establishment. The controlling fact is: TLS handshakes stall because clients cannot query the revocation endpoint.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Evaluate approved OCSP stapling or reachable revocation infrastructure.

B:

The current facts call for this action: evaluate approved OCSP stapling or reachable revocation infrastructure.

C:

Chain validation depends on current issuing authorities. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: an internal web endpoint presents a certificate signed by a retired enterprise intermediate. The proper immediate action is to evaluate approved OCSP stapling or reachable revocation infrastructure.


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