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CompTIA CAS-005 Practice Test 21

Question 200

A database discovery scan finds raw keys in old analytics snapshots. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Detect content sensitivity and relabel the artifact before distribution.
  2. Define a usable classification model tied to handling requirements.
  3. Extend coverage to the remaining authorized egress channels.
  4. Constrain snapshot retention and secret remediation using data discovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

At-rest copies remain sensitive assets. The controlling fact is: A database discovery scan finds raw keys in old analytics snapshots.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Constrain snapshot retention and secret remediation using data discovery.

B:

The current facts call for this action: constrain snapshot retention and secret remediation using data discovery.

C:

Partial channels create unobserved exfiltration paths. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a DLP control monitors web uploads but not file copies to local removable drives. The proper immediate action is to constrain snapshot retention and secret remediation using data discovery.

Question 201

A vulnerability scanner's coverage drops every time autoscaled hosts are replaced. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Integrate discovery and ephemeral workload identifiers into assessments.
  2. Test representative attacks and report verified coverage and misses.
  3. Measure actual population coverage and investigate exclusions.
  4. Tune using data classification and valid business destinations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Control effectiveness needs asset lifecycle awareness. The controlling fact is: A vulnerability scanner's coverage drops every time autoscaled hosts are replaced.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: integrate discovery and ephemeral workload identifiers into assessments.

C:

Unprotected scope changes residual risk. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a security team declares an endpoint baseline deployed despite 12% unmanaged devices. The proper immediate action is to integrate discovery and ephemeral workload identifiers into assessments.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Integrate discovery and ephemeral workload identifiers into assessments.

Question 202

Teams optimize alert count down while actual attack detection recall drops. Which control or decision MOST directly resolves the stated gap?

  1. Place monitoring at internal trust boundaries as well.
  2. Measure true positive detection and false negative coverage with test cases.
  3. Alert on heartbeat and ingestion-health failures.
  4. Add privacy-conscious structured security events and tracing identifiers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Low alert volume is not a security outcome by itself. The controlling fact is: Teams optimize alert count down while actual attack detection recall drops.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Placing monitoring at internal trust boundaries as well would not measure true positive detection and false negative coverage with test cases.

C:

Silent telemetry loss should be observable. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: data ingestion stops for a high-value asset but the monitoring dashboard stays green. The proper immediate action is to measure true positive detection and false negative coverage with test cases.

D:

Adding privacy-conscious structured security events and tracing identifiers would not measure true positive detection and false negative coverage with test cases.

Question 203

A partner API ignores signature verification for incoming callbacks. What is the appropriate security response for this scenario?

  1. Enforce contract-mapped time-limited access through monitored sessions.
  2. Isolate tenant credentials and use audience-restricted tokens.
  3. Require sender authentication and replay-resistant request integrity.
  4. Enforce contractual retention, encryption and secure deletion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A trusted partner label does not authenticate each request. The controlling fact is: A partner API ignores signature verification for incoming callbacks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enforcing contract-mapped time-limited access through monitored sessions would not require sender authentication and replay-resistant request integrity. A trusted partner label does not authenticate each request.

B:

The current facts call for this action: require sender authentication and replay-resistant request integrity.

D:

Enforcing contractual retention, encryption and secure deletion would not require sender authentication and replay-resistant request integrity. A trusted partner label does not authenticate each request.

Question 204

A legacy gateway silently disables TLS validation for one peer. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Place it in a restricted segment with mediated access and monitoring.
  2. Apply tested interim isolation and expedite replacement with owner signoff.
  3. Use protected external database activity monitoring and network-level corroboration.
  4. Remove the insecure bypass or enforce a controlled verified trust exception.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An interoperability workaround can undermine connection identity. The controlling fact is: A legacy gateway silently disables TLS validation for one peer.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Remove the insecure bypass or enforce a controlled verified trust exception.

B:

The current facts call for this action: remove the insecure bypass or enforce a controlled verified trust exception.

C:

Compensating controls can supply missing native telemetry. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a legacy database lacks native audit logs but the architecture needs tamper evidence. The proper immediate action is to remove the insecure bypass or enforce a controlled verified trust exception.

Question 205

A SAML relying party trusts any assertion from a partner without validating the audience. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Validate issuer, signature, audience and replay constraints at the service provider.
  2. Bind issuer, audience and nonce to the intended client flow.
  3. Separate authentication federation from application role authorization.
  4. Repair federated subject mapping and reject ambiguous principal identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A signed assertion is not universally valid for every application. The controlling fact is: A SAML relying party trusts any assertion from a partner without validating the audience.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: validate issuer, signature, audience and replay constraints at the service provider.

C:

Successful sign-in should not imply privilege. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: an enterprise uses SSO but each application assigns administrator rights by default. The proper immediate action is to validate issuer, signature, audience and replay constraints at the service provider.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Validate issuer, signature, audience and replay constraints at the service provider.

Question 206

An internal web endpoint presents a certificate signed by a retired enterprise intermediate. Which control or decision MOST directly resolves the stated gap?

  1. Evaluate approved OCSP stapling or reachable revocation infrastructure.
  2. Update the certificate chain and trust anchors using approved CA rollover.
  3. Require RA validation and issuance audit trails.
  4. Use the appropriate certificate profile and key usage for client identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Chain validation depends on current issuing authorities. The controlling fact is: An internal web endpoint presents a certificate signed by a retired enterprise intermediate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Evaluating approved OCSP stapling or reachable revocation infrastructure would not update the certificate chain and trust anchors using approved CA rollover. Chain validation depends on current issuing authorities.

C:

Identity proofing precedes trusted certificate issuance. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a CA issues end-entity certificates without recording who approved enrollment. The proper immediate action is to update the certificate chain and trust anchors using approved CA rollover.

D:

Using the appropriate certificate profile and key usage for client identity would not update the certificate chain and trust anchors using approved CA rollover. Chain validation depends on current issuing authorities.

Question 207

A trusted device becomes noncompliant mid-session but keeps privileged SaaS access. What is the appropriate security response for this scenario?

  1. Verify policy enforcement point behavior with explicit deny tests.
  2. Apply resource-sensitive step-up policy and approval gates.
  3. Reevaluate session authorization based on current device posture.
  4. Use trusted network metadata and authenticated device signals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Security state can change after initial authentication. The controlling fact is: A trusted device becomes noncompliant mid-session but keeps privileged SaaS access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Verifying policy enforcement point behavior with explicit deny tests would not address the need for reevaluate session authorization based on current device posture.

B:

The current facts call for this action: reevaluate session authorization based on current device posture.

D:

Using trusted network metadata and authenticated device signals would not address the need for reevaluate session authorization based on current device posture.

Question 208

An engineer has a valid badge but enters a laboratory without an approved project need. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Attest the authenticator binding before granting privilege.
  2. Rotate shared credentials and review emergency access ownership.
  3. Replace shared codes with individual attributable credentials.
  4. Enforce facility zone authorization rather than generic card validity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Physical authentication must be scoped to the target space. The controlling fact is: An engineer has a valid badge but enters a laboratory without an approved project need.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Enforce facility zone authorization rather than generic card validity.

B:

The current facts call for this action: enforce facility zone authorization rather than generic card validity.

C:

Identity accountability matters in physical access systems. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a door system logs staff entries using only a communal access code. The proper immediate action is to enforce facility zone authorization rather than generic card validity.

Question 209

A financial approval system allows a clerk to approve the very payment they created. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Enforce separation of duties through approved role rules.
  2. Apply mandatory classification and clearance control labels.
  3. Replace discretionary permissions with centrally governed data policies.
  4. Use attribute-based authorization with current contextual claims.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Conflicting business permissions require preventive role design. The controlling fact is: A financial approval system allows a clerk to approve the very payment they created.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: enforce separation of duties through approved role rules.

C:

Sensitive classification can require stricter control than owner preference. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a shared folder owner can unilaterally grant any employee access to regulated records. The proper immediate action is to enforce separation of duties through approved role rules.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Enforce separation of duties through approved role rules.

Question 210

A terminated contractor still has an enabled local account in a downstream SaaS tenant. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Add proofing and authoritative approval before issuing the role.
  2. Automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.
  3. Require risk-based identity verification and audit the reset.
  4. Recertify entitlements and remove obsolete privileges.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Directory disablement is not always propagated to every service. The controlling fact is: A terminated contractor still has an enabled local account in a downstream SaaS tenant.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Adding proofing and authoritative approval would not address the need for automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.

C:

Reset routes are authentication control surfaces. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a help-desk password reset bypasses prior identity proofing for executive accounts. The proper immediate action is to automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.

D:

Recertify entitlements and remove obsolete privileges would not address the need for automate deprovisioning and verify target application account removal.


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