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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 44

Question 430

An extended ACL should permit clients from 192.0.2.0/24 to reach web server 198.51.100.10 TCP port 443. Which port field must the destination service match?

  1. The UDP destination port eq 443 only.
  2. Match the client’s source TCP port 443 instead of the destination listener on the web server.
  3. The TCP destination port eq 443 after the destination host address.
  4. The TCP source port eq 443 on every client.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A normal HTTPS client uses an ephemeral source port; the listening service is on the server’s TCP destination port 443.

Incorrect Answers

A:

QUIC may use UDP 443, but the explicitly requested TCP HTTPS flow requires TCP matching.

B:

Typical HTTPS clients initiate from ephemeral source ports, so source eq 443 would reject their ordinary connections.

D:

Clients generally originate sessions from ephemeral ports, so source eq 443 would miss typical HTTPS flows.

Question 431

An OSPF router learns a prefix through R2 at cost 10 and through R3 at cost 25, with equal destination prefix length and no special policy. Which route has the better OSPF metric?

  1. Both routes necessarily load share even though their OSPF metrics differ.
  2. The path through R2 with total OSPF cost 10.
  3. The path through R3 because a larger OSPF cost is a higher priority.
  4. The path whose next-hop Ethernet MAC is numerically larger.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

OSPF uses accumulated positive link cost; the lower total metric normally wins within the same route type.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unequal OSPF costs do not normally form equal-cost multipath alternatives in standard behavior.

C:

For comparable OSPF routes, lower cost is preferred rather than higher.

D:

MAC address ordering does not override the OSPF SPF path cost calculation.

Question 432

A Windows laptop has address 169.254.22.14/16 after failing to contact DHCP. Which conclusion is the most defensible?

  1. It has an IPv4 link-local APIPA address, not a normal RFC1918 private DHCP lease.
  2. It received a normal RFC1918 address from the corporate 10/8 pool.
  3. It has a globally routable IPv4 address appropriate for direct Internet access.
  4. It learned an IPv6 global unicast address from router advertisements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

169.254.0.0/16 is IPv4 link-local range and often signals self-assignment when no configured DHCP lease is available.

Incorrect Answers

B:

RFC1918 private ranges are 10/8, 172.16/12 and 192.168/16; 169.254/16 has different status.

C:

IPv4 link-local addresses are not intended to be routed across the public Internet.

D:

169.254.22.14 is an IPv4 address; IPv6 SLAAC uses a separate 128-bit addressing process.

Question 433

A campus uses PVST+ and discovers that the root for VLAN 10 is Switch A but VLAN 20’s root is Switch B. Which statement correctly explains this state?

  1. All PVST+ VLANs must use one common root bridge at all times.
  2. The HSRP active gateway automatically dictates every PVST+ root.
  3. This means VLAN 20 cannot forward any Ethernet frames.
  4. PVST+ can elect a different root bridge for each VLAN spanning-tree instance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

VLAN-specific BPDUs and bridge priorities allow intentional load distribution with separate root choices per VLAN.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That is not a requirement of per-VLAN spanning tree; each VLAN can have distinct bridge priorities and root.

B:

First-hop redundancy elections and STP root election do not inherently set one another.

C:

A different root can be healthy; the relevant port roles and topology must be examined rather than assuming failure.

Question 434

A monitoring tool needs a near-immediate notification when Gi0/1 transitions down, without waiting for its next five-minute SNMP polling cycle. Which SNMP feature fits?

  1. An SNMP community string used as an event itself.
  2. Poll the SNMP interface counter once every minute but do not configure asynchronous linkDown notifications.
  3. An SNMP trap or supported notification sent by the agent on link-state change.
  4. An SNMP GET request scheduled only once every day.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Traps are asynchronous agent-to-manager notifications that can report relevant events without a scheduled polling request.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Community strings are legacy access-control information, not link-down notification messages.

B:

Polling can eventually detect an outage, but traps deliver device-generated event notice without waiting for the next manager request.

D:

A slow polling cycle may not report the event until much later and is not an asynchronous notification.

Question 435

A programmable campus switch receives controller policy via an API while processing user packets at line rate locally. Which interface is the management/control role rather than the data-forwarding operation?

  1. An ARP entry used for local next-hop MAC resolution.
  2. The controller-facing API used to configure intent and retrieve network state.
  3. A physical ASIC match/action lookup for each user frame.
  4. An Ethernet CRC check performed as a frame arrives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Controller APIs exchange policy/configuration and telemetry, while switch hardware handles individual frame forwarding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ARP adjacency is a forwarding prerequisite, not the northbound controller management API.

C:

ASIC forwarding is data-plane operation and is not the application interface for intent policy.

D:

Frame integrity checking is low-level interface processing, separate from controller policy access.

Question 436

A branch has a preferred static route to 10.80.0.0/16 via ISP-A and a higher-distance backup via ISP-B. The ISP-A path fails and its primary route is withdrawn. Which TWO checks establish correct backup behavior?

  1. Verify the ISP-B next hop is reachable and traffic actually forwards along it.
  2. Inspect only the primary route’s configured administrative distance and assume that proves backup failover was successful.
  3. Verify ISP-B BGP session uptime despite using only locally configured floating static routes with no BGP neighbor.
  4. Confirm the backup static configuration exists but ignore whether next-hop recursion is usable over ISP-B.
  5. Verify that the backup route becomes active for 10.80.0.0/16 in the routing table.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

A backup route without resolvable adjacency or working data path does not provide real failover.

E:

A floating static must be eligible and installed after the better route disappears; inspect selected next hop rather than configured lines alone.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An inactive primary does not establish that the backup entered the RIB or that ISP-B data-plane forwarding works.

C:

The intended verification should show that the backup static is installed and its actual next-hop forwarding works.

D:

Configured lines can remain while a route is unusable; operational installation and traffic forwarding must both be verified.

Question 437

A network operations team stores privileged switch credentials in a shared plaintext spreadsheet. What lifecycle control most directly reduces the secret-exposure risk?

  1. Rename the spreadsheet tab to Confidential and keep its permissions unchanged.
  2. Embed the credentials into every configuration backup so more technicians can recover them.
  3. Rotate privileged passwords but continue placing newly rotated values into the same globally readable spreadsheet.
  4. Move credentials to an access-controlled vault with audited retrieval, rotation and removal procedures.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Secret vaulting and lifecycle management control who retrieves passwords, when they expire and how compromise is remediated.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A label cannot enforce access control, auditing, or credential rotation when the plaintext file remains shared.

B:

Increasing copies of plaintext secrets broadens the attack surface rather than securing privileged access.

C:

Rotation cannot protect confidentiality if each new secret is immediately exposed to the same uncontrolled group of readers.

Question 438

A point-to-point routed Ethernet link uses 192.0.2.100/30. Which two host addresses can the router interfaces ordinarily use?

  1. 192.0.2.100 and 192.0.2.102.
  2. 192.0.2.102 and 192.0.2.104.
  3. 192.0.2.101 and 192.0.2.102.
  4. 192.0.2.100 and 192.0.2.103.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A /30 allocates .100 network, .101/.102 usable host addresses, and .103 broadcast.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The .100 network identifier is not a normal usable host in this traditional /30 arrangement.

B:

The .104 address begins the next /30 block, not the same point-to-point subnet.

D:

Those are the conventional network and broadcast addresses in this /30 and cannot be regular interface host addresses.

Question 439

Users on VLAN 65 connect to a routed SVI 10.65.0.1/24 and obtain IPs by DHCP relay. What scope setting must correspond to that VLAN?

  1. No default-router option because DHCP relay implies all off-subnet forwarding.
  2. A DHCP pool for 10.65.0.0/24 with an appropriate default-router option 10.65.0.1.
  3. A DHCP pool for the upstream management VLAN 99 regardless of client placement.
  4. A /8 mask for all clients so every corporate network appears on-link.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The leased address and gateway must match the routed client VLAN so clients can ARP to their actual gateway.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A relay helps obtain a lease, but the client still needs appropriate gateway configuration for remote destinations.

C:

A relay identifies the source subnet; assigning management VLAN addresses to clients in VLAN 65 causes incorrect Layer 3 connectivity.

D:

Changing the mask to /8 does not match the stated /24 SVI and may create broad incorrect ARP expectations.

Question 440

A switch in VLAN 30 is STP root, while the redundant distribution router is HSRP active gateway for the same VLAN. Is that inherently an error?

  1. Not inherently; STP root and HSRP active are independent, though alignment may optimize traffic paths.
  2. Yes; STP root must always be HSRP active by the protocol specification.
  3. Yes; HSRP replaces STP and makes the switch root selection impossible.
  4. No; both protocol roles are always irrelevant to traffic efficiency.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Different control protocols select a Layer 2 root and Layer 3 virtual gateway; design may deliberately co-locate them.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Neither protocol automatically forces its election outcome onto the other.

C:

HSRP handles first-hop gateway continuity and does not remove switched-loop protection.

D:

Even if valid, split root/gateway placement may create suboptimal Layer 2 forwarding and should be reviewed.


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