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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 42

Question 410

An enterprise deploys WPA3-Enterprise and wants to prevent forged 802.11 deauthentication frames from easily disconnecting clients. Which wireless control addresses the management frame risk?

  1. Disable the SSID beacon while retaining an unprotected association and management frame profile.
  2. Use a stronger WPA cipher for user data but leave the management-frame protection configuration unchecked.
  3. Protected Management Frames, as defined by 802.11w and required by WPA3 profiles.
  4. Disable SSID broadcast but leave management frames unprotected.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

PMF protects specified management frames, such as deauthentication and disassociation, against spoofing after association.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SSID discovery controls do not provide cryptographic integrity on deauthentication or disassociation management frames.

B:

Data confidentiality alone does not establish that the relevant management frames receive required integrity protection.

D:

Hidden SSIDs change discovery behavior and do not authenticate deauthentication frame contents.

Question 411

A router uses IPv6 static route ipv6 route 2001:db8:90::/64 FE80::2. It has multiple outgoing links and reports ambiguous next-hop resolution. What syntax makes the intended path explicit?

  1. Change the destination prefix to ::/0 to remove next-hop ambiguity.
  2. Specify the outbound interface as well as the FE80::2 link-local next hop in the IPv6 static route.
  3. Replace FE80::2 with the all-nodes multicast group ff02::1.
  4. Configure only the link-local FE80::2 next hop on a router that has two eligible Ethernet interfaces.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Link-local next-hop addresses are valid only on a particular link, so the router needs interface context to resolve the neighbor.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A default route changes which destinations match; it does not tell the router on which link FE80::2 resides.

C:

A multicast group is not a unicast adjacent next hop for the remote destination prefix.

D:

The same link-local address can exist on different links; specify the correct outgoing interface for unambiguous neighbor resolution.

Question 412

A security appliance must block a known malicious flow inline, rather than only report observations to analysts. Which role distinguishes it from a passive IDS sensor?

  1. An inline intrusion prevention system able to enforce drop/block actions on inspected traffic.
  2. Install the threat sensor on a monitor/SPAN port and rely on alerts alone to guarantee that malicious frames are dropped inline.
  3. A syslog collector without filtering capabilities.
  4. Configure a firewall to log matching traffic but leave its action as permit, claiming the traffic has been prevented.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

IPS inspection sits in an enforcement path, where a matching signature or policy can actually stop the malicious flow.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Out-of-band inspection can detect threats but is not on the forwarding path to enforce real-time packet drops.

C:

Syslog aggregates events after they occur and is not itself an inline packet-enforcement device.

D:

Permit-with-log may provide evidence but still allows the prohibited flow, so enforcement needs a blocking action.

Question 413

A retail chain wants AP software upgrades and RF policy centrally controlled over the Internet, without installing a controller at each store. Which option fits its requested management model?

  1. Use autonomous APs that must be configured individually by local console at every store.
  2. Deploy a controller appliance at each retail location and require site-by-site manual policy maintenance.
  3. Configure autonomous AP radio settings individually, then use a shared spreadsheet as the only central management plane.
  4. Choose supported cloud-managed APs enrolled in the authorized management service.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A cloud controller can centrally coordinate configuration, inventory and updates for compatible APs while local radios serve clients.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Autonomous operation can serve Wi-Fi but does not satisfy the requested centrally managed cloud maintenance workflow.

B:

On-prem per-store control can work but contradicts the specified goal of cloud centralized operations without local controllers.

C:

A manual inventory is not equivalent to an authenticated cloud service that can centrally push compatible AP policies and updates.

Question 414

A branch workstation at 10.22.4.17 reaches the Internet via PAT and appears externally as 198.51.100.20. Which NAT terminology is correct for these two addresses?

  1. Both addresses are inside local because PAT does not change address terminology.
  2. Describe 198.51.100.20 as the outside global destination address even though it represents the translated inside host.
  3. 10.22.4.17 is an inside local address; 198.51.100.20 represents its inside global mapping.
  4. 10.22.4.17 is outside global and 198.51.100.20 is outside local.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inside local names the inside host as known on the private network, while inside global is the externally visible translated identity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The public source translation is precisely the distinct inside-global representation.

B:

NAT inside global identifies the public-facing mapped identity of the inside source; outside global refers to the external destination identity.

D:

Outside address terms describe external destinations, not the translation of this inside workstation.

Question 415

An automation platform analyzes historical uplink utilization and predicts that a regional router will reach its capacity threshold next quarter. Which AI/analytics use is represented?

  1. Use static threshold alerts for current uplink utilization only and declare that an upcoming quarterly capacity trend has been forecast.
  2. Predictive capacity forecasting from time-series performance metrics.
  3. A port-security violation limit enforced for one switch MAC address.
  4. Calculate a three-month simple mean without accounting for the strong increasing utilization trend, then claim the average predicts future peak.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Historical utilization and trend analysis can estimate future demand so the network can plan upgrades before congestion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An instantaneous threshold detector can report present congestion but not estimate when growth will cross capacity based on history.

C:

Port security restricts local access identity and does not forecast future capacity consumption.

D:

A flat historical average can hide growth and bursts; the stated problem calls for a forecast from time-series behavior.

Question 416

R1 and R2 are in OSPF area 0. An internal link cost changes and an LSA is flooded within that area. What is the purpose of this propagation?

  1. Keep routers’ area link-state databases aligned so they can recompute SPF paths.
  2. Flood the new LSA only to routers on a different OSPF area, leaving area 0 routers with inconsistent LSDBs.
  3. Treat the updated link metric as a direct change to interface IPv4 addresses rather than a link-state attribute for SPF.
  4. Recompute SPF locally without flooding the changed link-state information to other routers in the same area.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

OSPF uses reliable LSA flooding and link-state database updates to distribute topology changes inside an area.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Within a common area, reliable LSA flooding synchronizes link-state databases before SPF recomputes paths. Sending updates elsewhere misses affected routers.

C:

OSPF LSAs describe connectivity and costs, not a command to renumber router interfaces; SPF uses them for path selection.

D:

The originating router can know its cost changed while peers still have stale databases; synchronized LSAs are needed for consistent intra-area paths.

Question 417

An IOS router is configured with username admin secret and line vty 0 4 login local plus transport input ssh. What must be available to authenticate a normal remote CLI login?

  1. An enabled Telnet password, even though transport input ssh excludes Telnet.
  2. Set a shared line password without the local username database, leaving login local configured on VTY.
  3. Require an SSH key exchange but omit any authorized local username or applicable AAA account used by login local.
  4. A matching permitted username/secret in the router’s local user database.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

login local instructs VTY authentication to use locally configured account credentials; SSH is the transport.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A Telnet line password is not the requested local-user authentication mechanism and Telnet is not allowed by this setting.

B:

VTY login local references user accounts, so a line password alone cannot supply the expected local username authentication flow.

C:

SSH transport encryption is distinct from CLI user identity verification; local login must resolve a valid permitted account.

Question 418

A host wants to send IPv6 neighbor-discovery information to all routers on the local segment, not to every IPv6 node. Which multicast address is appropriate?

  1. Send the multicast to ff02::1 (all nodes), expecting it to reach only routers and exclude ordinary IPv6 hosts.
  2. Send to ff02::fb, which is commonly used by mDNS, and assume it identifies the standard all-routers group.
  3. ff02::2, the link-local all-routers group.
  4. ff02::1, which addresses only IPv6 routers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

IPv6 defines ff02::2 for routers on one link, distinct from the broader ff02::1 all-nodes group.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The all-nodes group includes IPv6 hosts as well as routers. ff02::2 specifically targets routers on the local link.

B:

Multicast groups have assigned purposes; ff02::fb serves multicast DNS on the local link, not the IPv6 all-routers destination.

D:

ff02::1 is all-nodes and may reach hosts as well, so it is not the router-only group requested.

Question 419

Two switch ports are combined into a functioning Layer 2 EtherChannel. How does STP generally treat the bundled links when selecting forwarding or blocked topology roles?

  1. One EtherChannel member is always blocked by STP while the others forward.
  2. As one logical Port-channel interface rather than separate independent STP links.
  3. Each physical member must elect its own independent root bridge.
  4. Configure STP port priority on each EtherChannel physical member independently and expect them to form different logical STP ports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Bundling makes the links one logical Layer 2 connection for STP topology, avoiding independent member-port tree decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Traffic load balancing occurs within the logical channel; STP evaluates the bundle as an aggregate port.

C:

STP root election is per spanning-tree instance; EtherChannel members do not each become a separate root.

D:

The bundled member links participate as one logical Port-channel from spanning tree’s perspective rather than independent tree branches.

Question 420

A router already uses an OSPF route with AD 110 to 10.77.0.0/16. An administrator adds an equal-prefix static route with AD 200 that does not appear as active. Why?

  1. The higher-distance static is a floating candidate; the lower-AD OSPF entry is preferred while available.
  2. A configured static route must overwrite every learned route even with AD 200.
  3. Compare OSPF and static path metrics directly instead of their configured administrative distances for this same /16 prefix.
  4. OSPF installs a longer prefix even though both entries use the same /16 mask.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

For equal destination prefixes, administrative distance normally selects which routing source is installed as active.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A manually entered static can intentionally have higher AD than OSPF to serve as a backup.

C:

Metrics from separate routing sources do not override the inter-source AD preference in an equal-prefix comparison.

D:

The scenario compares equal-length prefixes, so source preference rather than longest-prefix specificity explains the result.


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