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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 41

Question 400

A router has IPv6 routes 2001:db8::/32 via R1 and 2001:db8:9000::/48 via R2. Traffic targets 2001:db8:9000:1::10. Which forwarding choice is expected?

  1. Use the /48 route via R2 because it most specifically matches the destination.
  2. Use R1 because /32 has fewer bits and therefore higher precision.
  3. Use both next hops for every packet regardless of prefix length.
  4. Use the IPv6 link-local all-nodes multicast path instead of unicast routing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

IPv6 forwarding uses longest-prefix match just like IPv4; the /48 is more specific than the containing /32.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Fewer matched prefix bits means a broader, less specific route.

C:

Equal cost comparisons occur among eligible equal-prefix routes, not arbitrary containing prefixes.

D:

The destination is a global-unicast prefix, not an IPv6 multicast group.

Question 401

An IPv6 laptop has a global SLAAC address but no working route to off-link networks. Which Neighbor Discovery information should it inspect from router advertisements?

  1. Trust an IPv4 DHCP default-router option as the IPv6 router lifetime and never inspect Router Advertisements.
  2. Verify only an IPv6 DNS AAAA lookup and assume successful name resolution creates the missing IPv6 default route.
  3. Configure the workstation’s IPv6 on-link /64 address but omit a router lifetime, assuming any on-link prefix is a default route.
  4. The advertised default-router information and whether the router’s link-local address is installed as a next hop.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Router Advertisements can supply default-router lifetime and link-local next-hop information for IPv6 hosts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

IPv4 DHCP can configure an IPv4 gateway but does not prove a usable IPv6 off-link default router; inspect RA lifetime and next hop.

B:

DNS can return a host address yet the IPv6 stack can still lack the default-router information needed to reach it.

C:

An on-link prefix supports local neighbor reachability, but off-link forwarding requires router information or an explicit default route.

Question 402

A switch can reach a candidate root bridge via two independent STP paths. Path A crosses two 1-Gbps links with short path cost 4 each. Path B crosses one 100-Mbps link with short cost 19. Which path has the lower total cost?

  1. Path B because a slower 100-Mbps link has a lower short path cost.
  2. Both paths tie because the destination root bridge is the same.
  3. Path A, total root path cost 8.
  4. Select the path with fewer switches without calculating IEEE STP root path cost across each interface speed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Adding the two short STP costs yields 4 + 4 = 8, which is less than the alternative path cost 19.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Standard short STP values make a 100-Mbps link cost 19 versus 4 for 1 Gbps.

B:

A shared destination does not erase the distinct accumulated path costs.

D:

STP chooses the lowest cumulative root path cost, which can favor two high-speed links over one lower-speed link regardless of hop count.

Question 403

An HSRP group uses virtual gateway 10.10.0.1 on VLAN 10. Both distribution switches are reachable on their management interfaces, but VLAN 10 is down on both. What explains the gateway failure?

  1. Increase the HSRP active priority on one switch but leave its VLAN 10 SVI down and without forwarding Layer 2 members.
  2. The routed VLAN interface needed for the HSRP virtual gateway is not operational.
  3. Leave the virtual gateway IP configured while excluding VLAN 10 from every active trunk, expecting HSRP alone to recover client reachability.
  4. An active HSRP router can forward frames on a VLAN that does not exist.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Management reachability via another network does not mean the client VLAN’s HSRP interface can receive and route host packets.

Incorrect Answers

A:

HSRP priority affects the gateway election only on operational participating interfaces. A down SVI cannot serve clients solely because its numeric priority is higher.

C:

Virtual IP configuration is insufficient if the VLAN itself has no operational Layer 2 path. Restore VLAN 10 eligibility or switchport state.

D:

The virtual IP and MAC depend on an operational client-facing interface in the relevant broadcast domain.

Question 404

Clients in VLAN 55 receive a valid 192.168.55.0/24 DHCP address but cannot resolve public DNS names; their lease lists DNS 192.168.55.254, which does not host DNS. What DHCP information should be fixed?

  1. Correct the DNS resolver option in the VLAN 55 DHCP scope, and verify the router option separately.
  2. Change the DHCP lease duration so clients renew their valid IP addresses more frequently, without correcting their advertised DNS resolver.
  3. Reduce the DHCP address pool range and leave the configured DNS option pointing at 192.168.55.254.
  4. Remove the DHCP default-gateway option even though clients need to reach an upstream DNS resolver across a routed link.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A valid leased IP does not imply the supplied option 6 DNS server is reachable or correct; option 3 provides default gateway.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Lease timing controls address configuration refreshes, but repeatedly receiving an invalid resolver will not fix name lookups. Update the correct DNS option.

C:

Shrinking the address scope may reduce allocation capacity but does not make the nonexistent DNS resolver answer client queries.

D:

The default gateway may be needed to contact an external resolver; removing it makes routing worse and does not fix the invalid DNS address.

Question 405

A data center has restricted rooms containing core switches. Facilities wants evidence of who entered and to prevent unauthorized visitors from walking in behind staff. Which physical security controls are directly relevant?

  1. Enforce employee badges on the core rooms but let all visitors follow them inside without recording identity or escort approval.
  2. Use a single shared visitor badge that grants unlogged access to every server room for the entire day.
  3. Disable switch port logging and rely on office reception memory.
  4. Badge-controlled access with visitor identity logs, escorts and appropriate anti-tailgating controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Physical security combines identity enforcement, entry records and prevention of unauthorized movement into sensitive equipment spaces.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Employee access control alone fails visitor accountability and allows unauthorized tailgating around the protected equipment area.

B:

A shared credential prevents accurate attribution and makes it difficult to enforce who is authorized for sensitive racks.

C:

Loss of audit evidence and informal recollection cannot establish controlled access to restricted rooms.

Question 406

A controller API exposes GET /devices, PUT /devices/42/name and POST /devices. Which statement best reflects common HTTP method idempotency semantics?

  1. GET is intended to modify device configuration on every call.
  2. Interpret idempotent DELETE as requiring an HTTP 200 with the deleted object body on every repeated request.
  3. GET and PUT are specified as idempotent operations; POST is not generally guaranteed to be idempotent.
  4. POST is always idempotent because servers automatically deduplicate requests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Repeating a PUT of the same intended resource state should have the same effect as one PUT; repeated POST creation may produce duplicates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

GET is a safe retrieval method and is not meant to apply configuration mutations.

B:

Idempotence concerns the intended final server state after repeated requests, not mandatory identical status codes or bodies; a later DELETE may return 404.

D:

Application-specific idempotency keys can add protection, but the HTTP POST method does not guarantee it.

Question 407

R1 has router-id 3.3.3.3 manually configured for OSPF, loopback 10.10.10.10, and routed interface 192.0.2.20. Which identifier does OSPF use after an appropriate process restart?

  1. Choose the highest loopback address as OSPF router ID even though the running process has a valid explicitly configured router-id.
  2. The explicitly configured OSPF router-id 3.3.3.3.
  3. The highest loopback address 10.10.10.10 regardless of manual setting.
  4. The numerically highest interface IP 192.0.2.20 in every case.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A manually specified router ID takes precedence over automatic loopback or active-interface selection when applied correctly.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Loopback selection applies to automatic selection; the configured router-id takes precedence when effective after the appropriate process reset.

C:

Loopback selection is an automatic fallback only when a manual router ID is not configured.

D:

Active-interface selection is not preferred over an explicit configured router ID.

Question 408

A host has 192.0.2.62/26; its configured local gateway is 192.0.2.65/26. Why will it fail ordinary direct ARP to that default gateway?

  1. The host is in 192.0.2.0/26 while the gateway belongs to 192.0.2.64/26.
  2. Configure a secondary gateway address 192.0.2.65 on the /26 client network without reconciling that the gateway is in another /26.
  3. 192.0.2.62 is the subnet broadcast address for a /26.
  4. Extend the host mask to /24 without checking the approved subnet boundaries and other gateway interfaces.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A /26 splits 64-address blocks. The gateway is outside the host’s directly connected prefix, so the address plan is inconsistent.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Secondary IPs may be valid in a deliberate design but do not make a remote /26 address directly reachable by ordinary host ARP.

C:

In 192.0.2.0/26 the broadcast is .63; .62 is a valid usual host address.

D:

A wider mask might make the gateway appear on-link but can unintentionally merge two distinct /26 networks and violate segmentation.

Question 409

A desktop connected to Gi1/0/10 sends untagged Ethernet frames. The switchport was accidentally configured switchport mode trunk and uses native VLAN 99 instead of expected user VLAN 20. What should be corrected?

  1. Increase the allowed VLAN list on the port without fixing its mode.
  2. Increase the trunk’s allowed VLAN list to include VLAN 20 while leaving the ordinary desktop connected untagged in native VLAN 99.
  3. Change only the desktop IP address to the VLAN 99 subnet while leaving the port in trunk mode against host-access policy.
  4. Restore the port to access mode in VLAN 20 with the expected host-facing settings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An ordinary untagged workstation belongs on an access port; trunk native VLAN handling can place its frames in the wrong VLAN.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Allowing more tagged VLANs does not make the untagged host belong to the intended access VLAN 20.

B:

An untagged desktop still enters the trunk native VLAN rather than the intended access VLAN 20. Use a proper host-facing access port.

C:

Renumbering the client masks the unintended trunk/native-VLAN behavior and still violates the required access VLAN 20 host port setup.

Question 410

An enterprise deploys WPA3-Enterprise and wants to prevent forged 802.11 deauthentication frames from easily disconnecting clients. Which wireless control addresses the management frame risk?

  1. Disable the SSID beacon while retaining an unprotected association and management frame profile.
  2. Use a stronger WPA cipher for user data but leave the management-frame protection configuration unchecked.
  3. Protected Management Frames, as defined by 802.11w and required by WPA3 profiles.
  4. Disable SSID broadcast but leave management frames unprotected.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

PMF protects specified management frames, such as deauthentication and disassociation, against spoofing after association.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SSID discovery controls do not provide cryptographic integrity on deauthentication or disassociation management frames.

B:

Data confidentiality alone does not establish that the relevant management frames receive required integrity protection.

D:

Hidden SSIDs change discovery behavior and do not authenticate deauthentication frame contents.


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