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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 3

Question 20

Two distribution switches provide gateway service for VLAN 120. Each has a distinct physical SVI address. Hosts currently use the first switch's physical SVI as default gateway and lose reachability when that switch fails. Which design preserves the client gateway address during failover?

  1. Configure both switches with the same physical SVI address and no redundancy protocol.
  2. Configure HSRP priorities on both gateways but omit the standby group’s virtual IP and shared gateway identity.
  3. Assign clients the preferred physical SVI address as their gateway and expect HSRP to preserve it automatically after failure.
  4. Configure a first-hop redundancy protocol group with a shared virtual default-gateway IP.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

HSRP or a supported equivalent lets hosts keep one stable virtual gateway address while active forwarding responsibility moves between group members. Verify the virtual IP and MAC behavior, eligibility, priorities and upstream reachability. Redundant physical gateways alone do not preserve the address already configured on clients.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Duplicate physical interface addresses create an address conflict and unpredictable ARP behavior; they do not establish coordinated active and standby ownership. A first-hop redundancy group manages a virtual address with explicit failover roles while preserving distinct real interface addresses.

B:

Relative priority cannot provide a working first-hop virtual address until both gateways participate in a correctly configured HSRP group.

C:

The router’s physical SVI IP does not move with HSRP; clients must use the common configured virtual gateway address.

Question 21

A switch receives a unicast frame on Gi1/0/7 with source MAC 00aa.00aa.0077 and destination MAC 00bb.00bb.0099. The source is not in its MAC table. What learning action does the switch take?

  1. Associate source MAC 00aa.00aa.0077 with incoming Gi1/0/7 in that VLAN.
  2. Install destination MAC 00bb.00bb.0099 on the incoming Gi1/0/7 before forwarding.
  3. Create an IPv4 ARP table entry for both MAC addresses even though no IP header was examined.
  4. Flood the source MAC entry to all VLANs so every connected host can learn it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Ethernet switching learns from the source MAC and ingress port of received frames. It may then flood an unknown destination within the same VLAN until that destination is learned, but the learning event itself records the sender. Entries age out or change when a host moves.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The frame's destination identifies the intended receiver but does not prove that receiver is physically behind the source's ingress port. A switch learns the source MAC from the port where the frame arrived, then consults its table to decide whether to forward or flood toward the destination.

C:

An ordinary Layer 2 switch MAC learning process is independent of host IPv4 ARP cache population. It can update its source-MAC forwarding table from the Ethernet header alone. ARP is a separate protocol for mapping an IPv4 next hop to a MAC address.

D:

Flooding an unknown destination frame is generally scoped to the ingress VLAN. MAC learning stores the source-to-port association locally in that VLAN, not as a broadcast announcement to all VLANs. Extending it across VLANs would defeat Layer 2 segmentation.

Question 22

Three switches form one Rapid PVST+ VLAN. Their configured STP priorities are 24576, 28672 and 32768, and all use distinct MAC addresses. Which switch becomes the root bridge for that VLAN?

  1. Whichever switch has the highest MAC address, regardless of priority.
  2. The switch with priority 24576, because its bridge ID is lowest.
  3. The switch with priority 32768 because the default value is preferred.
  4. The switch with priority 28672 because the median bridge priority avoids reconvergence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

STP root selection compares bridge IDs, which contain a configured priority component and system MAC identifier. The lowest priority in this scenario is 24576, lower than the other two, so the first switch wins without needing a MAC tie-breaker. Verify actual per-VLAN root in show spanning-tree.

Incorrect Answers

A:

MAC address is a tie-breaker only after the priority portions of bridge IDs compare equally. The priorities here differ, so MAC magnitude cannot override them. This choice confuses the fallback comparison with the primary root-selection criterion.

C:

32768 is a common default STP priority, not a special winning rank. A switch with a lower configured priority has a lower bridge ID and wins the root election when all else is compatible. Leaving a distribution switch at default may allow an unintended root.

D:

STP does not select a median bridge ID for stability. It deterministically chooses the lowest bridge ID, and an intentionally chosen root should align with network design. The middle priority here would lose to 24576 regardless of the desired convergence properties.

Question 23

Two branch routers should exchange routes with single-area OSPFv2. R1 advertises its WAN interface in area 0, but R2 configured the directly connected WAN interface in area 1. Addresses, timers, and MTU are otherwise compatible. What must be corrected?

  1. Configure R1 in passive-interface mode on the WAN link.
  2. Increase OSPF reference bandwidth on both routers while retaining the area mismatch.
  3. Move R2's matched WAN interface into the same OSPF area 0 as R1.
  4. Increase R2's router ID above R1's router ID while leaving area 1 unchanged.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

OSPF neighbors sharing an interface must agree on the area identity for that link. A mismatch prevents the intended adjacency even if the physical layer and IPv4 subnet are healthy. Correct the interface or network statement, then inspect show ip ospf neighbor to confirm adjacency.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A passive OSPF interface suppresses the neighbor-forming Hello exchange, making the mismatch worse rather than resolving it. The WAN needs active OSPF and a common area with the peer. Passive operation is useful for user-facing advertised interfaces without OSPF neighbors.

B:

Reference bandwidth affects calculated routing costs, not the area identity in neighbor Hello packets. Equalizing cost calculations can matter for path selection later but does not fix the prerequisite adjacency on a shared link assigned to different areas.

D:

Router IDs uniquely identify OSPF speakers, but their relative size does not reconcile two different area assignments on one link. Matching area ID is a neighbor formation requirement. Router-ID changes may disrupt adjacencies but cannot make area 0 and area 1 identical.

Question 24

A new workstation receives no IPv4 address after moving to another floor, but its hostname is still resolvable from an old DNS record. The team needs the service that normally supplies a client address, subnet mask and default gateway automatically. Which protocol fulfills that role?

  1. DNS, because resolving a host name automatically allocates a matching IPv4 interface address.
  2. Change only the host DNS resolver addresses, even though DHCP has not supplied any IP lease.
  3. Increase the DHCP lease duration at the old floor while leaving the moved workstation unable to contact the correct new scope.
  4. DHCP, which leases addressing and network parameters to clients.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DHCP can assign an address and convey options such as subnet mask, default router and DNS servers. DNS instead maps names to records like A and AAAA; an existing DNS record does not prove the workstation has a valid current lease. Check the DHCP scope, relay and client exchange.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS record resolution is a lookup process and generally does not lease interface IP addresses to endpoints. A stale A record can remain resolvable even when a workstation has no usable address. The missing client configuration belongs to DHCP or another explicit address-assignment method.

B:

Name resolution cannot supply the missing interface IP address, subnet mask and default gateway; check DHCP discovery and relay configuration first.

C:

A longer lease does not make the client discover the server/relay or match the network of its newly attached VLAN.

Question 25

An access router uses `enable password MyClearPass` and `service password-encryption`. Security asks to protect privileged EXEC access with the stronger built-in hashed credential form rather than a reversible encoded password. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Set an `enable secret` with an appropriately strong secret and remove dependence on the old enable password.
  2. Keep `enable password` and rely solely on `service password-encryption` to make it strongly hashed.
  3. Set the console `password` only and expect privileged mode to inherit it.
  4. Increase console line password complexity but leave the existing enable password as the sole credential for privileged EXEC mode.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cisco IOS uses the enable secret mechanism to store a one-way verifier rather than a simply reversible type-7 encoded password. Choose a strong unique credential and protect configuration backups; where supported, use appropriate modern hashing algorithms. Changing a console line password alone would not secure privileged EXEC mode.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Service password-encryption commonly obfuscates plain-text passwords using a reversible type-7 representation. It is not the same as the stronger one-way enable secret mechanism. The requirement targets privileged EXEC credential storage, so change that setting directly.

C:

Console line authentication controls initial local access, whereas enable credentials protect escalation to privileged EXEC. They are distinct stages. A console password does not replace the separate enable secret and may leave an existing weak privileged password unchanged.

D:

A stronger console password can protect initial interactive access, but it does not repair the reversible enable credential used during privilege escalation. Configure a strong enable secret for the separate privileged-mode boundary.

Question 26

A leaf-spine fabric transports tenant application subnets as an overlay on top of routed IP connectivity. An engineer claims the tenant encapsulation can work even when the physical leaf-to-spine IP links cannot reach one another. What is the accurate dependency?

  1. Tunnel endpoint addresses are unnecessary because overlay frames never enter the IP forwarding plane.
  2. The overlay depends on reachable IP underlay paths between its tunnel endpoints.
  3. An overlay's VLAN identifier automatically repairs failed physical uplinks.
  4. The underlay consists only of a central management dashboard, not data forwarding links.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An underlay supplies the physical and routed IP transport on which an encapsulated overlay such as VXLAN travels. Tenant segments can appear logically adjacent through the overlay, but packets still cross real links and routed hops. Diagnose underlay reachability and MTU before treating an overlay tunnel failure as a tenant policy problem.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Common overlay designs such as VXLAN encapsulate tenant traffic in IP/UDP between reachable VTEP addresses. The resulting underlay packets are forwarded according to normal IP routing. Without functioning endpoints and underlay paths, the tenant overlay cannot deliver traffic as designed.

C:

A virtual network identifier labels an overlay segment but does not restore a broken physical path or an IP route between tunnel endpoints. Encapsulation still needs a functioning routed transport. A VLAN or VNI assignment cannot replace reachability across the fabric underlay.

D:

Management controllers can configure the fabric, but the underlay is the network infrastructure carrying encapsulated data frames or packets. Misidentifying management as transport would direct troubleshooting away from real routing, MTU and physical interface conditions.

Question 27

An IPv6 router has interface GigabitEthernet0/1 connected to an upstream neighbor whose only reachable next-hop address is `fe80::1`. The router needs a default route through that link. Which form includes the required interface context?

  1. `ipv6 route 2000::/3 GigabitEthernet0/1 fe80::1`
  2. `ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 fe80::1`
  3. `ipv6 route ::/0 GigabitEthernet0/1 fe80::1`
  4. `ipv6 route ::/0 fe80::1` without an outgoing interface.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Link-local IPv6 next hops have scope only on a particular link, so an exit interface is required to identify where that neighbor exists. The ::/0 prefix is the IPv6 default route. Verify IPv6 connectivity to fe80::1 on Gi0/1 and check the installed route and next-hop resolution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

2000::/3 covers global unicast ranges but is not the universal default route and excludes other IPv6 destinations. The request is to route otherwise unknown IPv6 traffic through one neighbor, which requires ::/0 and the link-local interface context.

B:

The ip route command and dotted mask are IPv4 syntax. IPv6 routes use ipv6 route and IPv6 prefix notation. An IPv6 link-local next hop also needs a specific outgoing interface. Mixing protocol address families cannot install the intended route.

D:

A link-local address such as fe80::1 can occur on multiple network links, so the router cannot unambiguously determine the neighbor's interface from that address alone. The route needs both the link-local next hop and the intended outgoing interface.

Question 28

A six-floor office has one access-layer switch per floor and two distribution switches that also provide the campus backbone. The company wants a small, cost-conscious design without a separate dedicated core layer. What campus topology matches?

  1. A three-tier hierarchy with separate access, distribution and core layers despite the no-core requirement.
  2. A spine-leaf data center fabric where every desk switch acts as a leaf for east-west server traffic.
  3. A single unmanaged switch for every floor with no distribution aggregation or redundant backbone.
  4. A two-tier collapsed-core design with access and combined distribution/core layers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A two-tier campus separates endpoint access from a redundant pair performing aggregation and core functions. For this office size it can reduce hardware and operational complexity while retaining a clear access-uplink model. A three-tier design adds a dedicated core layer when scale and separation warrant it.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A three-tier network can be appropriate for a much larger campus, but the requirement explicitly avoids a separate core tier. Adding one increases devices and design complexity without a stated scalability need. A collapsed-core pair can provide the necessary distribution and backbone functions.

B:

Spine-leaf is valuable in data centers with large east-west workloads and predictable leaf-spine paths. Floor access switching for users does not call for that topology, and it does not directly address the budget and collapsed-core campus constraint.

C:

A flat unmanaged design might connect endpoints but loses the stated managed aggregation and resilience goals. The office already has access switches and needs redundant higher-layer interconnection. A two-tier collapsed core supplies that structure without an additional third core tier.

Question 29

A university has 60 APs across three buildings and wants a common security policy, shared SSID configuration and coordinated RF management. The engineer is choosing between standalone APs and a controller-based deployment. What best fits?

  1. Deploy supported lightweight APs under a WLAN controller or equivalent centralized wireless management.
  2. Configure each AP independently with a unique SSID and unrelated security policy.
  3. Remove all wireless controllers and use CDP neighbor advertisements as the AP management system.
  4. Manage each lightweight AP separately using its own local configuration even though the campus requires one consistent multi-building WLAN policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A controller-based design centralizes WLAN profiles, authentication policy and often RF optimization while APs continue serving client radios. It reduces inconsistent configuration across dozens of units. Validate controller/AP compatibility, capacity and management reachability; a controller cannot compensate for poor cable or RF coverage by itself.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Standalone management is workable for very small networks but creates drift at this scale and conflicts with the requested common policy and roaming experience. Unique SSIDs and different credentials complicate users moving among buildings rather than coordinating coverage.

C:

CDP discovers adjacent Cisco devices and can help troubleshoot connections, but it does not centrally define WLAN SSIDs, authentication settings or RF policy. The requirement is administrative consistency across a wireless infrastructure, not just neighbor discovery.

D:

Autonomous per-AP management undermines centrally enforced SSIDs and security settings and multiplies configuration drift across the buildings.

Question 30

A company requires user passwords to withstand credential stuffing and offline guessing. Staff currently reuse an eight-character company-wide password. Which policy change directly improves the credential's security while still supporting normal account management?

  1. Disable password complexity requirements and all access auditing while retaining one shared login.
  2. Require unique long passwords and appropriate multifactor authentication for sensitive access.
  3. Keep the shared password but rotate it on the first day of each year.
  4. Use a shorter fixed password so employees can memorize it and avoid lockouts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Password length and uniqueness raise the cost of guessing and prevent one leaked credential from working across accounts. MFA adds a second factor against password theft, especially for privileged access. Use managed recovery and monitoring rather than forcing predictable shared rotations that encourage reuse.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Complexity is only one password strength dimension, but eliminating unique identities and audit records reduces both prevention and accountability. The scenario needs individual strong credentials, ideally MFA, and traceable access. A shared unmonitored login makes unauthorized activity easier to hide.

C:

A widely shared credential remains difficult to attribute to one user and can be reused by anyone who learns it. An annual change does not stop immediate credential stuffing after a leak. Require individual unique secrets and strengthen authentication controls instead.

D:

Reducing secret length and making the credential common increases guessing and reuse risk. Convenience matters, but policy should support password managers and recovery while requiring strong unique credentials. A shorter shared value does not meet the requested resilience to offline guessing.


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