Pass Your Cisco 200-301 Exam Easy!

Cisco 200-301 Exam Questions & Answers, Accurate & Verified By IT Experts

Instant Download, Free Fast Updates, 99.6% Pass Rate

200-301 Premium Bundle

$74.99

Cisco 200-301 Premium Bundle

200-301 Premium File: 760 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

200-301 PDF Study Guide: 1969 Pages

200-301 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "200-301" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download VCE exam simulator click here
Cisco 200-301 Premium Bundle
Cisco 200-301 Premium Bundle

200-301 Premium File: 760 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

200-301 PDF Study Guide: 1969 Pages

$74.99

200-301 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "200-301" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 1

Question 1

A branch office has two Ethernet access switches. Users in VLAN 10 (10.15.10.0/24) can talk locally but must reach a finance server on 10.15.20.0/24. Neither access switch can perform Layer 3 forwarding. Which change enables the required communication?

  1. Provide a router or routing-capable Layer 3 gateway with interfaces for both VLAN subnets.
  2. Add a second trunk carrying VLAN 10 between the access switches.
  3. Enable ip routing on the existing Layer 2-only access switches without adding any supported Layer 3 gateway capability.
  4. Configure an additional MAC address entry for the finance server on the user switch.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Traffic between different IP subnets requires a Layer 3 forwarding decision. A router or Layer 3 SVI gateway can resolve the destination route, rewrite Layer 2 headers, and forward between the two VLANs subject to policy. A conventional Layer 2-only access switch cannot replace that routing function.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An 802.1Q trunk extends a VLAN across switches, which helps hosts already in the same broadcast domain. It does not provide routing between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20. Both subnets still need a device that processes their IP traffic and acts as their default gateway.

C:

The configuration command cannot create a routing capability absent from this hardware; an actual router or supported Layer 3 switch is required between the IP subnets.

D:

A static MAC entry can influence forwarding within a VLAN when the device already knows which destination MAC should receive a frame. The users must reach a different IP network; the missing function is routing at a default gateway, not local MAC table population.

Question 2

A technician moves a desktop from the warehouse to an accounting desk connected to Gi1/0/14. The existing switchport is configured as an access port in VLAN 30, but the accounting DHCP and gateway are in VLAN 40. What interface change is appropriate?

  1. Add VLAN 40 to the permitted trunk list on the same desktop-facing port without changing its access VLAN.
  2. Set Gi1/0/14 as an access port in VLAN 40, verifying that VLAN 40 exists on the switch.
  3. Change the switch port to an 802.1Q trunk with native VLAN 30.
  4. Change the switchport voice VLAN to 40 but leave its data access VLAN at 30.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The desktop is an untagged Ethernet endpoint and needs its access port in the broadcast domain that serves the accounting subnet. Set switchport mode access and switchport access vlan 40, then verify membership and an appropriate DHCP lease. A trunk is unnecessary for a single untagged desktop.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Allowed-VLAN lists govern trunk forwarding. The technician's port remains in access VLAN 30 and sends untagged frames, so adding a trunk setting does not change its effective VLAN membership. Correct the access VLAN assignment instead and confirm the selected VLAN exists.

C:

A trunk is useful when a neighboring device expects multiple VLAN tags; an ordinary desktop access connection does not. Retaining VLAN 30 as the untagged native VLAN would keep the desktop in the wrong network, so this would not solve its DHCP/gateway mismatch.

D:

A desktop sends untagged data frames through the access VLAN; changing only a voice VLAN setting does not assign that PC to accounting VLAN 40.

Question 3

A router interface Gi0/1 is configured as 192.0.2.1/27 and is up/up. The command show ip route displays `C 192.0.2.0/27 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1`. What does the route code C indicate?

  1. The entry is a manually configured static route with an administrative distance of one.
  2. The entry is a local host route identifying only the router's interface address.
  3. The prefix is installed as a directly connected network because the local interface is active.
  4. The prefix was learned from a neighbor using OSPF and is being advertised as connected.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

IOS installs a C route for the network attached to an operational interface with a matching IP prefix. The /27 identifies the on-link subnet and Gi0/1 is the exit interface. The separate L /32 entry identifies the router's own configured interface address, not the entire connected network.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A normal static route is identified by S in Cisco route output. A directly connected subnet is generated from an up/up routed interface with its IP configuration; treating C as a static route would send troubleshooting toward a nonexistent ip route statement.

B:

The L route, commonly using /32 in IPv4, denotes the exact local address used by an interface. The shown C route covers the full /27 subnet and allows forwarding to attached neighbors. Confusing the two can lead to incorrect assumptions about host reachability.

D:

OSPF-learned intra-area routes normally use the O code rather than C. The interface address and mask themselves are sufficient to create a connected route while the line protocol is operational; no OSPF adjacency or learned advertisement is needed for this C entry.

Question 4

A small factory router translates addresses from an internal 10.44.0.0/24 LAN to the provider-facing Internet interface. The NAT rule exists, but hosts still leave untranslated because the router has not classified either interface. Which configuration boundary is missing?

  1. Configure only a default route to the ISP while leaving the 10.44.0.0/24 inside host source addresses untranslated.
  2. Add one static inside-to-global mapping for a single 10.44.0.10 workstation, assuming it also covers the rest of the /24.
  3. Create a static MAC entry for the next-hop router on the internal switch.
  4. Declare the LAN interface `ip nat inside` and the provider interface `ip nat outside`.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inside source NAT evaluates flows using the configured inside and outside interface roles. Without those roles, a static or dynamic translation statement may be syntactically present but not applied to the intended path. After configuring them, verify the appropriate match ACL and show ip nat translations during active traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Forwarding a packet out the provider path is not equivalent to changing its private source into a routable address; PAT or approved translation is still needed.

B:

A one-to-one static mapping serves its configured host, not all other private workstations that need shared Internet translation.

C:

A local Layer 2 MAC entry may help a specific Ethernet forwarding issue, but it does not tell IOS which routed interface is NAT inside or outside. The stated symptom is translation never occurring despite the NAT rule, so fix the missing NAT roles first.

Question 5

During a risk review a security engineer finds that a branch router runs an unpatched service with a known remote-code-execution bug. No attacks have been observed. How should the team classify the bug itself?

  1. A vulnerability: an exploitable weakness that an attacker could take advantage of.
  2. A confirmed exploit because the service has a published CVE entry.
  3. A successful compromise because the device has not yet been patched.
  4. A mitigation because the service is still enabled to preserve availability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A vulnerability is the weakness in software or configuration. An exploit is the method or action that takes advantage of it, while a threat is the potential actor or event that could cause harm. Patch or mitigate the exposed service before observing an attack; lack of known exploitation does not erase the weakness.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A CVE identifies a documented vulnerability, not proof that attackers have successfully used it against this branch device. Exploitation requires an action that leverages the flaw. The engineering team can prioritize remediation based on severity and exposure without falsely recording an attack event.

C:

An unpatched condition increases exposure but does not establish that a malicious actor gained access or changed state. Confirmed compromise needs additional evidence such as altered configuration, unauthorized sessions, or incident logs. This finding is a vulnerability awaiting mitigation, not itself a proven breach.

D:

Mitigation reduces risk, for example patching, disabling unnecessary functionality, restricting network access, or applying compensating controls. Keeping a vulnerable service enabled does not mitigate its bug; it leaves the weakness available, even when operational availability is an important competing constraint.

Question 6

A managed-service provider configures NTP and syslog settings manually on 240 branch switches. A weekly audit finds different logging destinations on nearly identical sites. What operational benefit most directly justifies configuration automation?

  1. Removing post-change verification because script exit code zero proves device state.
  2. Applying version-controlled, validated configuration consistently and identifying drift across devices.
  3. Eliminating the need to test templates because every generated change is correct by definition.
  4. Allowing each operator to continue using unique undocumented CLI commands for each switch.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Automation can run the same reviewed intent against many branches, compare resulting states, and report sites that deviate. The provider should test templates, use idempotent changes where possible, and protect credentials. The value is repeatability and auditability rather than a promise that automation itself makes every change safe.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A successful automation process only shows that commands or API operations were submitted according to its own checks. Devices may reject commands, apply them to the wrong interface, or fail to persist changes. Verify the effective running configuration and syslog/NTP behavior after deployment.

C:

Automation amplifies both good and bad configurations. An incorrect shared template could break logging simultaneously across many branches, so dry runs, change review, rollback and verification remain necessary. Uniform deployment is not equivalent to technical correctness of the selected settings.

D:

Unrecorded manual differences are the cause of the observed drift. Merely automating an inconsistent collection of ad hoc commands preserves that problem. A versioned source of truth and repeatable device-specific templates help standardize settings and make exceptions visible.

Question 7

A router receives a packet for 10.20.4.17. Its route table contains `10.20.0.0/16 via A`, `10.20.4.0/24 via B`, and `10.20.4.17/32 via C`. All routes are installed. Which next hop is chosen?

  1. Next hop B, because /24 is the normal LAN mask and always beats a host route.
  2. The router load-balances among A, B, and C because all three prefixes match.
  3. Next hop C, because the /32 host route is the longest matching prefix.
  4. Next hop A, because a /16 summarizes more addresses and therefore has priority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A destination lookup compares all installed routes covering the destination and selects the most-specific matching prefix. The /32 matches exactly 10.20.4.17, so it outranks the /24 and /16 irrespective of their protocol labels. Administrative distance only adjudicates competing routes to the same prefix during installation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Subnetting conventions do not override longest-prefix match. A /24 does contain 10.20.4.17, but a valid installed /32 is still a closer match. The router uses C for this host and may use B for another destination within the /24 lacking a specific host route.

B:

Equal-cost multipath may apply to eligible installed paths for the same route prefix and attributes. Three routes with different prefix lengths are not equal candidates for this destination. The router uses the longest one, so traffic to 10.20.4.17 follows the /32 route alone.

D:

A summary route is less specific, not more preferred for a packet that also matches narrower routes. It is useful for aggregate reachability, but the /32 host route directs this particular destination to next hop C. Broad address coverage is not the router's forwarding tie-breaker.

Question 8

A Windows laptop can ping 192.168.50.1 but cannot resolve intranet.company.test. The technician needs to inspect the DHCP-supplied DNS servers, default gateway, lease and interface IPv4 address together. Which command gives the most direct Windows evidence?

  1. Run `arp -a` and treat the displayed MAC address mappings as proof of the DNS server list.
  2. Run `route print` and assume the default route identifies the DHCP-provided DNS server.
  3. Run `netstat -an` and use the number of open sockets to infer the configured DNS addresses.
  4. Run `ipconfig /all` and inspect the active adapter's addresses, gateway, DNS servers, and lease details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The extended Windows IP configuration display exposes the settings needed to determine whether name resolution failed because of an incorrect DNS server or other client parameter. Connectivity to a gateway does not prove DNS resolution. The technician should also use nslookup to test the actual record after reviewing these settings.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The ARP cache maps local IPv4 neighbors to Ethernet MAC addresses. It cannot show the DNS resolver IPs provided to the client, the DHCP lease parameters, or the default gateway configuration. It may help with local connectivity but does not supply this configuration inventory.

B:

The route table can display the default gateway and network prefixes, making it relevant to reachability, but DNS resolver information is a separate client setting. A valid route to the gateway does not reveal which recursive DNS server is configured or whether it is reachable.

C:

Netstat shows socket and protocol endpoint activity, not the DHCP configuration fields requested by the technician. DNS sessions may be transient or absent when viewed. Use the adapter's IP configuration output to inspect actual resolver and lease parameters, then test DNS separately.

Question 9

Two access switches connect via Gi1/0/48. VLANs 12, 22 and 32 must cross the link, but each switchport currently runs access mode and users in VLAN 22 cannot reach the remote switch. Which change addresses the interswitch transport?

  1. Configure an 802.1Q trunk on both sides and allow VLANs 12, 22, and 32.
  2. Change the interswitch ports to access VLAN 22 on both sides.
  3. Make Gi1/0/48 an access port in VLAN 22 while the link must carry VLANs 12, 22, and 32.
  4. Configure 802.1Q trunk mode on both ends but omit VLAN 32 from the allowed VLAN list.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A trunk carries frames from multiple VLANs across one Ethernet link, preserving their tags except for the agreed native VLAN behavior. Verify trunk state and allowed VLANs with show interfaces trunk on both switches. An access link carries one data VLAN and cannot transport all three required broadcast domains.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This can restore connectivity for hosts in VLAN 22, but it would not carry VLAN 12 or VLAN 32 over the same physical connection. The stated requirement is simultaneous transport of three VLANs. An 802.1Q trunk with the appropriate allowed list is needed.

C:

An access port carries ordinary untagged traffic for one VLAN and cannot substitute for the requested multivlan 802.1Q trunk.

D:

Correct trunk mode is only part of the solution; required tagged VLAN 32 traffic remains blocked when the allowed list excludes it.

Question 10

An office wireless LAN must use WPA2-Personal with a shared passphrase for a limited group of approved devices. In the WLC GUI, the WLAN exists and its SSID is mapped to the proper VLAN, but its security mode remains open. What change meets the stated authentication policy?

  1. Set the WLAN to WPA2-Enterprise and require a RADIUS server without providing one.
  2. Configure WPA2 with AES-CCMP and the approved pre-shared key in the WLAN security settings.
  3. Enable SSID broadcasting while leaving open authentication and encryption unchanged.
  4. Create a new WLC interface group without configuring a security key.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

WPA2-Personal uses a pre-shared key to authenticate client association and protect traffic with the selected supported cipher. After saving and enabling the WLAN, verify that a test client negotiates the expected security and receives an address in the mapped VLAN. The SSID name and VLAN alone do not enforce WLAN encryption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

WPA2-Enterprise is a different authentication design relying on 802.1X/EAP and an available identity service. The stated requirement is WPA2-Personal with an approved shared passphrase. Selecting Enterprise without a configured AAA infrastructure would prevent the desired clients from authenticating.

C:

SSID advertisement affects whether the network name is publicly visible during discovery, not whether the WLAN authenticates clients with a WPA2 pre-shared key. An open network would remain open even if its SSID were advertised only to selected devices.

D:

Interface groups can map client traffic to network VLANs but do not replace a security policy. The SSID already has the correct VLAN mapping; the missing function is WPA2-Personal authentication and AES-CCMP encryption. Creating another interface group does not fix open association.


Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

200-301 Premium File

Premium File
200-301 Premium File
760 Q&A
$76.99$69.99

200-301 Study Guide

Study Guide
200-301 Study Guide
1969 PDF Pages
$27.49$24.99

Site Search:

 

VISA, MasterCard, AmericanExpress, UnionPay

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

ExamCollection Premium

ExamCollection Premium Files

Pass your Exam with ExamCollection's PREMIUM files!

  • ExamCollection Certified Safe Files
  • Guaranteed to have ACTUAL Exam Questions
  • Up-to-Date Exam Study Material - Verified by Experts
  • Instant Downloads
Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code
A Confirmation Link will be sent to this email address to verify your login
We value your privacy. We will not rent or sell your email address

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

Use Discount Code:

MIN10OFF

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.
Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examcollection.com and follow the directions.

Next

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your e-mail address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

Free Demo Limits: In the demo version you will be able to access only first 5 questions from exam.