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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 2

Question 10

An office wireless LAN must use WPA2-Personal with a shared passphrase for a limited group of approved devices. In the WLC GUI, the WLAN exists and its SSID is mapped to the proper VLAN, but its security mode remains open. What change meets the stated authentication policy?

  1. Set the WLAN to WPA2-Enterprise and require a RADIUS server without providing one.
  2. Configure WPA2 with AES-CCMP and the approved pre-shared key in the WLAN security settings.
  3. Enable SSID broadcasting while leaving open authentication and encryption unchanged.
  4. Create a new WLC interface group without configuring a security key.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

WPA2-Personal uses a pre-shared key to authenticate client association and protect traffic with the selected supported cipher. After saving and enabling the WLAN, verify that a test client negotiates the expected security and receives an address in the mapped VLAN. The SSID name and VLAN alone do not enforce WLAN encryption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

WPA2-Enterprise is a different authentication design relying on 802.1X/EAP and an available identity service. The stated requirement is WPA2-Personal with an approved shared passphrase. Selecting Enterprise without a configured AAA infrastructure would prevent the desired clients from authenticating.

C:

SSID advertisement affects whether the network name is publicly visible during discovery, not whether the WLAN authenticates clients with a WPA2 pre-shared key. An open network would remain open even if its SSID were advertised only to selected devices.

D:

Interface groups can map client traffic to network VLANs but do not replace a security policy. The SSID already has the correct VLAN mapping; the missing function is WPA2-Personal authentication and AES-CCMP encryption. Creating another interface group does not fix open association.

Question 11

A stub router connects its inside 192.168.88.0/24 LAN to an ISP router over 203.0.113.8/30. The local WAN address is .9 and the ISP is .10. No dynamic routing is used. Which IOS route sends otherwise unknown destinations to the ISP?

  1. `ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 203.0.113.10`
  2. `ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.9`
  3. `ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.10`
  4. `ip route 192.168.88.0 255.255.255.0 203.0.113.10`

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A static default route uses the destination 0.0.0.0/0 and points to the ISP next-hop address. It is considered only when no more-specific route matches a packet. Verify that 203.0.113.10 is reachable over the connected /30 and check the gateway of last resort in show ip route.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The supplied mask specifies a /32 host route to the single address 0.0.0.0, not a default prefix covering all IPv4 destinations. IOS route masks define matching bits. Use 0.0.0.0 as both the destination network and mask for the usual static default.

B:

The address .9 is the local router's own WAN interface, not the ISP neighbor. Referring the default next hop to oneself cannot forward traffic to the upstream router. The correct next-hop is .10, reachable on the directly connected /30 link.

D:

This creates a route for the router's inside subnet toward the ISP rather than a catch-all route for Internet destinations. The LAN is already directly connected, and the static entry does not match arbitrary outside addresses. A /0 route is required for otherwise unknown destinations.

Question 12

Three nearby APs operate on 2.4 GHz with 20 MHz channels. They currently use channels 2, 4 and 6, and clients see severe adjacent-channel interference. Which channel plan minimizes overlap in a typical regulatory domain that permits all three channels?

  1. Assign channels 1, 2 and 3 because their numerical separation is one step.
  2. Put all three APs on channel 6 at maximum power to avoid adjacent-channel overlap.
  3. Keep adjacent APs on overlapping 20-MHz channels 2, 4, and 6 but lower their beacon interval to reduce interference.
  4. Assign channels 1, 6 and 11 to the three APs, followed by a site RF validation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For 2.4 GHz 20 MHz channels, 1, 6 and 11 are the conventional nonoverlapping set in regions that permit them. They reduce adjacent-channel interference compared with overlapping channels 2, 4 and 6. Check local regulations, measured co-channel demand and transmit power as part of a real WLAN survey.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Adjacent 2.4 GHz channels are spaced far less than the width of a 20 MHz transmission, so selecting consecutive numbers produces overlapping RF energy. Numerical uniqueness alone is not sufficient. Use an approved nonoverlapping channel plan and confirm it against local conditions.

B:

Using one channel avoids adjacent-channel interference but increases co-channel contention among nearby cells, particularly at maximum power. The case asks for minimizing overlapping channel interference among three APs, so distribute across the conventional nonoverlapping set and tune RF power rather than force all traffic into one channel.

C:

Beacon timing does not remove spectral overlap between nearby 2.4-GHz channels; use a supported nonoverlapping channel plan.

Question 13

After a technician moves a cable, a Cisco access switch displays `Device ID: SW-DIST; Local Interface: Gi1/0/47; Port ID (outgoing port): Gi1/0/12` under `show cdp neighbors detail`. What can the technician conclude without tracing cables manually?

  1. The local Gi1/0/47 sees the Cisco neighbor SW-DIST on that neighbor's Gi1/0/12.
  2. The local Gi1/0/12 is connected directly to the neighbor's Gi1/0/47.
  3. The two switches are guaranteed to exchange every VLAN successfully because CDP works.
  4. SW-DIST is necessarily the default gateway router for the local switch.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

CDP advertisements expose adjacent Cisco device identity and the local and remote port association. The information helps confirm the physical connection but does not by itself establish that every VLAN or route is functional. Verify interface status, trunking and Layer 3 paths separately if the traffic problem persists.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The display labels have different perspectives. Local Interface refers to this switch's port, while Port ID describes the neighbor-advertised outgoing interface. Reversing them can lead a technician to modify the wrong physical port during a change.

C:

CDP neighbor discovery requires local frame exchange but does not verify 802.1Q allowed VLAN lists, native VLAN alignment, or STP forwarding state. It proves a neighbor was heard on a port, not that the desired application traffic crosses the link.

D:

A CDP device name and adjacent port do not determine a host's gateway or the routing role of the neighbor. SW-DIST could be a Layer 2 distribution device or a Layer 3 gateway. The routing table, SVI configuration and client IP settings establish gateway behavior.

Question 14

A branch router's clock drifts and its syslog events cannot be correlated with the central operations dashboard. The trusted time source is reachable at 192.0.2.40 and must be used as an NTP server. Which IOS configuration matches this client requirement?

  1. Enable detailed syslog time fields but leave the router clock free-running without an NTP association.
  2. Configure `ntp server 192.0.2.40` and verify synchronization status.
  3. Configure an NTP peer that is not reachable through any permitted management path and assume timestamps are synchronized.
  4. Set `clock set` once and assume the configured time remains correct indefinitely.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The router should act as an NTP client of the trusted remote server. The ntp server statement identifies its source of time; subsequent show ntp associations and show ntp status output can confirm whether it has synchronized. Correct timestamps improve the reliability of correlated incident logs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Precise-looking timestamps are not accurate across devices unless the router synchronizes with a trustworthy time source.

C:

A configured source that never exchanges valid time packets cannot discipline the clock; verify reachability and actual synchronization status.

D:

A manual clock correction can temporarily make displayed timestamps look accurate, but clock drift recurs without synchronization. The branch must use a reachable trusted reference and monitor synchronization status, not rely on a one-time operator adjustment.

Question 15

An enterprise configures ACLs and interface settings by logging into hundreds of switches individually. Management proposes a controller-based architecture to apply a standard campus policy consistently. What primarily changes in the management model?

  1. The controller removes the need for device identity, management permissions and change review.
  2. Each switch independently decides the organization's policy, and the controller only collects screenshots.
  3. The controller provides centralized policy and configuration intent while devices continue forwarding packets.
  4. Every client packet must traverse the controller CPU instead of any switch forwarding hardware.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Controller-based networks can centralize management and policy distribution, reducing inconsistent per-device configuration. Physical devices still provide a data plane and apply the downloaded state. The controller's reachability and architecture determine how existing flows behave during an outage; it is not a universal replacement for local forwarding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A controller increases the importance of authenticated administrative access because a single automation error can impact many devices. Versioned policy, role authorization, staged rollout and monitoring still matter. Centralizing configuration does not make security and governance optional.

B:

This leaves the core box-by-box management problem unchanged. A controller can be an authoritative policy/control interface and distribute configured intent to devices. Telemetry alone can be useful but does not explain the centrally managed model proposed for consistent configuration.

D:

Centralized management or control does not necessarily mean centralizing the data plane. Campus switches often continue to forward traffic locally with installed state. Conflating control and data planes would misrepresent how controller-enabled networks scale and survive temporary management disruption.

Question 16

R1 Gi0/0 is 10.0.8.1/30 and the campus OSPF process is 10, area 0. R2 on the same /30 already runs OSPF in area 0. Which R1 router-OSPF network statement matches only this /30 when configuring R1?

  1. `network 10.0.8.0 255.255.255.252 area 0`
  2. `network 10.0.8.0 0.0.0.255 area 1`
  3. `network 10.0.8.1 0.0.0.0 area 2`
  4. `network 10.0.8.0 0.0.0.3 area 0`

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The OSPF network command selects local interfaces whose addresses match the network and wildcard mask. The /30 wildcard is 0.0.0.3 and includes 10.0.8.1. This causes the corresponding interface to participate in area 0; verify with show ip ospf interface and show ip ospf neighbor.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An OSPF network statement uses an inverse wildcard mask, not the normal subnet mask. Supplying 255.255.255.252 as a wildcard matches a very different pattern of interface addresses. Convert the /30 mask to its 0.0.0.3 wildcard for the intended link.

B:

This statement matches a much larger /24 range and places matching interfaces in area 1, conflicting with the neighbor's area 0. The design explicitly requires a single-area OSPF topology and one /30 link, so both its wildcard and area selection are incorrect.

C:

Matching the precise interface address with a host wildcard can enable OSPF on that interface, but the proposed area is 2 rather than area 0. The routers connected to this link must agree on area identity; a mismatch prevents the intended neighbor relationship.

Question 17

An employee correctly reports several suspicious password-reset emails. The company wants a preventive security-program control that helps other staff recognize social engineering before clicking unknown login links. Which activity best addresses the human risk?

  1. Deliver role-appropriate phishing awareness training with examples and a clear reporting path.
  2. Reconfigure dynamic ARP inspection on access switches as the primary email-phishing defense.
  3. Add a stricter password minimum but give no training, phishing-reporting workflow or protection against malicious login pages.
  4. Block only the exact sender address of the reported message while allowing lookalike domains and other phishing links through.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

User education helps employees recognize spoofed senders, urgent payment or password requests, and suspicious links, and provides a repeatable way to report them. Training complements mail filtering and multifactor authentication; it does not substitute for technical controls. Use realistic authorized exercises and measure appropriate reporting behavior.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Dynamic ARP inspection prevents certain local Layer 2 ARP spoofing attacks when correctly deployed. It does not teach employees to recognize fraudulent email requests. The security program should address the relevant social-engineering pathway with awareness, escalation and mail-security controls.

C:

Password policy can help against weak credentials but does not directly teach staff to identify or respond to the reported phishing attempt.

D:

A single sender deny can be part of response but is easily bypassed; prevention requires broader awareness and appropriate mail/web security controls.

Question 18

A team deploys a Linux API as ten short-lived containers on two servers. Management assumes each container includes a complete independent guest operating-system kernel just like a VM. What is the accurate distinction?

  1. Containers and VMs are identical technologies except that containers always use more memory.
  2. Containers ordinarily share the host OS kernel, while VMs run guest operating systems through a hypervisor.
  3. Each Linux container must start its own hypervisor and guest kernel before the API launches.
  4. VMs share one process namespace with host applications and cannot run separate operating systems.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A container packages an application and its dependencies with process and namespace isolation but typically uses the host's kernel. A VM virtualizes hardware resources and has its own guest OS. Both provide useful isolation, but patching, startup time and security boundaries differ; the choice matters for the team's deployment model.

Incorrect Answers

A:

They have different isolation and execution models, not merely different resource sizes. VM overhead often includes a guest OS, while containers can reuse the host kernel. Actual memory usage depends on workload and implementation, so an always-more-memory claim is not reliable.

C:

That describes VM-style isolation, not normal OS-level Linux containers. The API instances share the host kernel, which is why containers are generally lighter and quicker to initialize than full guest operating systems. Container isolation still needs appropriate hardening.

D:

A hypervisor creates separate guest execution environments and commonly supports different guest operating systems. Containers are the technology that typically share a host kernel. Treating VMs as plain host processes reverses the key abstraction the team is trying to understand.

Question 19

Two Catalyst switches are connected by two matching Ethernet links. On Switch A both ports are LACP active; on Switch B both are LACP passive. Speeds, VLAN mode and channel numbers are compatible. What should happen?

  1. The ports join automatically only if Switch B uses PAgP desirable mode.
  2. The links forward separately without any bundle because LACP ignores passive peers.
  3. LACP should negotiate an EtherChannel because active initiates and passive responds.
  4. The bundle stays down because both switches must use active mode.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Active mode sends LACP packets to negotiate with a compatible peer. Passive responds to received LACP negotiation. Active/passive is therefore a valid pairing, provided member interfaces agree on parameters such as speed, duplex, native VLAN and trunk mode. Verify the port-channel membership and state with show etherchannel summary.

Incorrect Answers

A:

PAgP is a different Cisco channel-negotiation protocol and does not negotiate a single bundle with LACP. The scenario explicitly sets LACP on both switches. Maintain matching LACP configuration, not a mixed-protocol pairing.

B:

Passive mode is not disabled mode: it can respond to negotiation from an active partner. With compatible member settings, the links can join one logical port-channel that STP treats as a single port. Check actual bundled flags rather than assume individual forwarding.

D:

Active/active is one valid LACP combination, but not the only one. A passive peer can respond to an active peer's control packets. The actual incompatible case is passive/passive, in which neither side initiates negotiation.

Question 20

Two distribution switches provide gateway service for VLAN 120. Each has a distinct physical SVI address. Hosts currently use the first switch's physical SVI as default gateway and lose reachability when that switch fails. Which design preserves the client gateway address during failover?

  1. Configure both switches with the same physical SVI address and no redundancy protocol.
  2. Configure HSRP priorities on both gateways but omit the standby group’s virtual IP and shared gateway identity.
  3. Assign clients the preferred physical SVI address as their gateway and expect HSRP to preserve it automatically after failure.
  4. Configure a first-hop redundancy protocol group with a shared virtual default-gateway IP.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

HSRP or a supported equivalent lets hosts keep one stable virtual gateway address while active forwarding responsibility moves between group members. Verify the virtual IP and MAC behavior, eligibility, priorities and upstream reachability. Redundant physical gateways alone do not preserve the address already configured on clients.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Duplicate physical interface addresses create an address conflict and unpredictable ARP behavior; they do not establish coordinated active and standby ownership. A first-hop redundancy group manages a virtual address with explicit failover roles while preserving distinct real interface addresses.

B:

Relative priority cannot provide a working first-hop virtual address until both gateways participate in a correctly configured HSRP group.

C:

The router’s physical SVI IP does not move with HSRP; clients must use the common configured virtual gateway address.


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