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Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 11

Question 100

A Cisco OSPF router on a broadcast LAN shows a neighbor in `2WAY` state, while its DR neighbor is `FULL`. No packet loss or interface errors are observed. What is the best interpretation?

  1. 2WAY can be a normal endpoint state between DROTHER routers that do not form full adjacency with one another.
  2. 2WAY means all routes are missing and OSPF must be disabled.
  3. The state proves that the interface is administratively down.
  4. Any 2WAY neighbor always indicates mismatched area IDs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

On OSPF broadcast networks, a DROTHER may remain 2WAY with another DROTHER while forming full adjacencies with the DR/BDR as required. This is not inherently a fault.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A 2WAY neighbor can still participate in a healthy multiaccess OSPF design when DR/BDR adjacencies are FULL. Disabling routing would break legitimate reachability.

C:

Administratively down interfaces cannot exchange the OSPF Hellos required to establish 2WAY. The observed state proves neighbor discovery occurred on the active interface.

D:

An area mismatch typically prevents compatible OSPF Hello neighbor formation rather than yielding a stable normal 2WAY relationship. Check area settings if symptoms warrant, not automatically.

Question 101

A college campus is expanding from three buildings to nine. Network designers want access ports in each building, aggregation of building links, and an independent high-speed campus backbone. Which layout fits this modular requirement?

  1. Use a single unmanaged Layer 2 switch for all building uplinks.
  2. Connect all end hosts directly to the core and omit distribution policy.
  3. Use direct Internet connections at each new campus access building while leaving the required distribution and resilient internal core unplanned.
  4. Use distinct access, distribution, and core layers with resilient uplinks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A three-tier campus separates edge access from aggregation and backbone forwarding, allowing policy at distribution while core links move traffic predictably. Resiliency can be designed between layers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

One switch could centralize a tiny office but creates scaling and fault-domain problems across multiple campus buildings. It lacks the planned separate distribution and core roles.

B:

End hosts need access-layer port controls and aggregation, while a core should remain focused on fast reliable transport. Collapsing all access into the core conflicts with the stated modular growth.

C:

Independent Internet exits do not provide the stated scalable campus hierarchy, consistent routing, or centralized policy across buildings.

Question 102

A lightweight AP is placed in a branch classroom and serves one staff SSID mapped only to VLAN 26. The wired switchport carries no other WLAN or controller-management VLAN. Which access connection is generally appropriate?

  1. Configure the AP uplink as an 802.1Q trunk carrying multiple VLANs even though this one-SSID design only uses VLAN 26.
  2. Configure a switch access port in the staff VLAN if the supported AP forwarding mode and management design require that single untagged VLAN.
  3. Require an 802.1Q trunk carrying every campus VLAN even when none is used by the AP.
  4. Use a routed `no switchport` port on the access switch and disable VLAN switching for the AP.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A single mapped untagged VLAN can use an ordinary access port when the AP's data and management connectivity are designed for it. Confirm actual AP mode and controller path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Trunking can be appropriate for multivlan AP mappings, but it is unnecessary if the deployment supports one ordinary client VLAN and a matching access interface.

C:

A trunk is needed when multiple tagged VLANs or specific controller designs traverse the connection, not simply because a radio exists. Unused VLANs expand complexity and exposure.

D:

A routed port changes the attachment model and usually does not provide the expected bridged client VLAN. The branch AP must map client traffic to the intended Layer 2 segment.

Question 103

A branch router is configured with `ip route 10.66.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.0.2.18`, but its routing table lacks the static route. The interface to 192.0.2.18 is down, leaving no resolution for that next hop. What should be restored first?

  1. Increase the static route’s administrative distance but leave its next-hop IP unresolved through any connected network.
  2. Change the static route's destination mask to /8 without restoring the next hop.
  3. Repair the connected path that makes next hop 192.0.2.18 resolvable and reachable.
  4. Add a default route whose next hop recursively points back to the same unreachable 192.0.2.18.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An IOS static route using a next-hop address normally depends on resolving that next hop through a usable route or connected interface. Restore the underlying path and verify the route installs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Changing source preference does not establish a valid adjacency to 192.0.2.18; check next-hop reachability first.

B:

Broadening the destination prefix changes which packets could match and risks misrouting unrelated traffic. It does not repair the missing connected path to the configured next hop.

D:

A self-referential forwarding dependency cannot make the configured next hop reachable and may produce route recursion failure.

Question 104

A workstation joins a new wired network with DHCP enabled and no existing lease. Its packet capture shows the normal four-message address-allocation exchange. Which sequence should the technician expect?

  1. DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK.
  2. Send a DHCPREQUEST before receiving an offer and expect a compliant server to accept any unselected lease automatically.
  3. DHCPREQUEST, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPNAK on every successful lease.
  4. DHCPACK, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPDISCOVER.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A new DHCP client broadcasts discovery, a server offers configuration, the client requests the chosen offer, and the server acknowledges the binding. Exact capture behavior may include options and retransmissions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The normal initial DORA exchange includes discovery and an offer before a client requests a particular proposed configuration.

C:

DHCPNAK rejects an invalid or unavailable requested lease and is not the normal final message of a successful allocation. The initial discover normally occurs before the client's selection request.

D:

An ACK finalizes the selected lease and cannot ordinarily precede the discovery and selection stages. This reversed sequence does not describe a standard initial successful allocation.

Question 105

DHCP snooping on a campus switch correctly accepts replies from a trusted uplink, but another endpoint connects a rogue DHCP server to ordinary access Gi1/0/20. What should the switch do to untrusted server-offer frames?

  1. Configure the rogue port as trusted automatically after the first DHCPACK.
  2. Trust the rogue workstation access port as a DHCP server reply source because the normal uplink is already trusted.
  3. Configure DHCP snooping without marking the legitimate DHCP-server-facing uplink trusted.
  4. Drop the unauthorized DHCP server replies received on the untrusted access interface.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DHCP snooping examines DHCP roles and trust on ingress. Server-type replies on an untrusted user-facing port are blocked, protecting clients from unauthorized address and gateway assignments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Trust is an explicit administrative boundary and should not be granted just because a frame resembles a successful server response. Automatic trust defeats rogue-server defense.

B:

Trusting an unapproved access interface permits the exact rogue offers DHCP snooping was meant to block.

C:

A server reply arriving on an untrusted port can be dropped; trust should be limited to verified infrastructure interfaces.

Question 106

A company centralizes access policy in a campus network controller. An engineer wonders whether every client packet must be copied to the controller once the design is deployed. Which distinction is correct?

  1. The controller implements TCP acknowledgments for all application sessions.
  2. The controller supplies management/control policy while devices normally forward ordinary data traffic locally according to programmed state.
  3. The controller necessarily processes every user Ethernet frame as the only data-plane switch.
  4. Assume each campus switch must forward every user packet through the controller management interface rather than locally using installed entries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Controller architectures separate centralized policy decisions or programming from distributed forwarding in network devices. The precise southbound mechanism depends on the platform, but data-plane hardware remains active.

Incorrect Answers

A:

TCP reliability belongs to endpoint transport stacks. A network controller does not ordinarily send application-layer acknowledgments on behalf of all communicating hosts.

C:

Some special architectures tunnel selected flows, yet it is not generally necessary for a central policy controller to inspect and switch every ordinary endpoint packet.

D:

Controller-based policy can direct switches, but ordinary data-plane packet forwarding stays on the network devices.

Question 107

A single-area OSPF Ethernet neighbor display shows `FULL/DR` beside the peer at 10.0.12.2. What does FULL indicate about the local router's relationship with this neighbor?

  1. The routers have only discovered each other and remain in Init.
  2. The neighbor is physically disconnected and cannot send Hello messages.
  3. The routers have completed the required OSPF database synchronization for that adjacency.
  4. The routers failed to exchange database description packets permanently.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

FULL indicates a fully formed OSPF adjacency and synchronized link-state database relationship between the neighbors for that interface context. The DR suffix describes the peer's broadcast-network role.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An Init neighbor state means a router has received Hello but has not yet observed reciprocal neighbor information. That is earlier than FULL and does not describe synchronized adjacency.

B:

A disconnected link cannot sustain a FULL adjacency indefinitely because Hellos and neighbor keepalives cease. The current state records active control-plane communication.

D:

Failed database exchange would typically leave a neighbor stuck in an earlier exchange state or reset. FULL indicates those required exchange steps completed successfully.

Question 108

A switch has learned host A's MAC address on VLAN 18 but has never seen destination MAC 00aa.bbcc.ddee. An Ethernet unicast frame for that unknown MAC arrives on Gi1/0/4 in VLAN 18. What will the switch normally do?

  1. Flood that unknown unicast to eligible other forwarding ports within VLAN 18, excluding the ingress port.
  2. Broadcast the frame out every VLAN including VLAN 27.
  3. Discard all unknown unicasts even when no security filtering is configured.
  4. Send the frame only to its default gateway regardless of the destination MAC.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A Layer 2 switch learns source MACs and uses its VLAN-scoped CAM table. Without a known destination entry, ordinary unknown-unicast handling floods within that VLAN's forwarding domain.

Incorrect Answers

B:

VLANs are distinct Layer 2 broadcast domains. Unknown-unicast flooding is contained within the ingress VLAN, not indiscriminately copied to unrelated VLANs.

C:

Some protection features can suppress unknown-unicast flooding, but ordinary default switching behavior is to flood while learning. An unconditional drop would prevent unknown destinations from communicating.

D:

A Layer 2 switch does not automatically rewrite every unknown destination to the IP default gateway. Hosts send to gateway MACs explicitly when routing is needed.

Question 109

A technician configures users' access ports for VLAN 20 but the VLAN is absent from the switch database, leaving ports inactive or traffic misplaced. What must be added?

  1. Assign a correct DHCP scope for VLAN 20 but leave VLAN 20 absent from the switch’s active VLAN database.
  2. Configure VLAN 20 on the trunk allowed list but leave the VLAN nonexistent or inactive locally.
  3. Change the native VLAN on an uplink while keeping client access ports assigned to an undefined VLAN 20.
  4. Create VLAN 20 on the switch and assign the appropriate access interfaces to it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A normal-range VLAN must exist and be active on a Cisco switch before its assigned access ports can bridge frames within that broadcast domain. Verify membership and uplinks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Even a healthy DHCP server cannot make an access port participate in a nonexistent Layer 2 VLAN on the switch.

B:

The trunk’s permit list alone does not create an operational local VLAN for access ports and SVI participation.

C:

Native VLAN affects untagged trunk behavior but does not satisfy the requirement for an existing active client VLAN.

Question 110

An access engineer must block one legacy workstation's IPv4 source address 10.10.7.44 from reaching a small subnet behind the distribution router, while allowing its other destinations. Only a standard ACL is available. Where should it generally be placed?

  1. Place a broad deny ACE below an existing permit any rule in the correct ACL, expecting the later deny to block the targeted host.
  2. Near the destination subnet so the source-only filter does not block unrelated paths earlier.
  3. Near the source on the first switch so all other destinations are blocked too.
  4. Bind a correct deny ACL outbound on an unrelated interface that the prohibited application flow never traverses.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A standard ACL matches the source but not the destination. Placing it near the affected destination avoids denying that source's legitimate traffic to unrelated networks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ACL processing stops at the first match; permit any above the specific deny would shadow it.

C:

Applying a source-only deny near the workstation would drop its traffic before any destination distinction is possible, exceeding the narrow requested access restriction.

D:

A valid ACL rule cannot enforce a policy if it is not attached to the relevant path and direction.


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