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Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 10

Question 90

A switch is configured for local-only administrator login on VTY lines. The engineer created user `netops` with a secret, but VTY connections still request the old line password rather than the user account. What should be configured?

  1. Configure VTY authentication with a shared line password only, leaving the intended local user database unused.
  2. Enable `login local` under the VTY lines and restrict remote transport to SSH.
  3. Set `login` only and remove the username database.
  4. Change the enable secret without updating VTY authentication.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

VTY `login local` directs authentication to the locally defined username and secret database. It is independent of the enable secret used when entering privileged EXEC mode.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A local username/secret must be referenced by login local; a shared line password does not satisfy per-user local login policy.

C:

The simple `login` setting can use a configured line password rather than the local username database. Removing the user definition defeats the requested account-based sign-in.

D:

The enable secret protects privileged mode after a login succeeds. It does not determine how VTY access authenticates the incoming user's name and password.

Question 91

A routing table entry reads `O 192.168.44.0/24 [110/30] via 10.0.0.2`. Which protocol supplied this entry?

  1. Static routing, indicated by the route code S.
  2. RIP, indicated by R.
  3. OSPF, indicated by the route code O.
  4. Directly connected interface routing, indicated by C.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cisco IOS uses O to mark a route learned by OSPF. The bracket shows OSPF administrative distance 110 and the selected metric in this common output format.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A static route normally carries the code S, and its default administrative distance is usually 1. Code O explicitly identifies a different route source.

B:

RIP-learned entries use route code R and commonly administrative distance 120. The visible O and 110 values identify OSPF rather than RIP.

D:

A connected network normally appears with C and derives from an active interface prefix. This entry lists an OSPF next hop and does not indicate direct connection.

Question 92

Adjacent office access points both advertise 5 GHz WLANs, and users experience interference because the radios overlap on the same channel at high power. Which RF change should be evaluated first?

  1. Use appropriate non-overlapping supported 5 GHz channels and tune transmitter power with a site survey.
  2. Increase WLAN channel width across both adjacent APs while keeping their overlapping channel assignments unchanged.
  3. Raise AP transmit power on both overlapping 5-GHz radios without reworking their channel plan.
  4. Hide one SSID while leaving both radios on the same noisy channel.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Channel selection and RF power determine co-channel contention and interference behavior. Survey the actual site, regulatory domain and client capabilities before making the APs use compatible distinct channels.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Wider channels can increase spectral overlap and contention; plan supported nonoverlapping frequencies or appropriate reuse.

C:

More power enlarges cells and contention regions and may increase the interference already reported.

D:

Hiding an SSID does not change the RF channel occupied by the AP or eliminate transmissions from associated clients. Interference persists despite a different discovery appearance.

Question 93

In a rapid spanning-tree topology, an access switch has one root port, one designated port, and one alternate path toward the root. Which behavior is expected for the alternate port while the primary path works?

  1. The alternate is always an administratively shut interface.
  2. The alternate forwards simultaneously with the root port by default.
  3. The alternate becomes the root bridge without exchanging BPDUs.
  4. The alternate remains in discarding rather than forwarding data frames.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An alternate port represents a backup Layer 2 path; RSTP keeps it discarding to prevent loops while the current root path operates. It can transition if topology conditions change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Discarding is an STP operational state, not necessarily an administrative shutdown. The interface can exchange control BPDUs while not forwarding regular user traffic.

B:

Forwarding both parallel Layer 2 paths as normal active links without an aggregation mechanism may form a switching loop. STP deliberately blocks one redundant path.

C:

Root bridge election is a property of switch bridge identifiers, not a state automatically assumed by an alternate port. The port role cannot transform a switch into the root.

Question 94

A public ticketing server in a DMZ has fixed inside address 10.1.50.7. Customers on the Internet must reach it at the permanent public address 203.0.113.70. Which NAT design fits?

  1. Translate only the inbound source address and leave the private server destination unchanged.
  2. Configure a static inside source mapping from 10.1.50.7 to 203.0.113.70.
  3. Use dynamic NAT from a pool that changes the public address on each session.
  4. Rely solely on a default route, with no address translation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Static NAT creates a predictable one-to-one address association suitable for a service published at a stable external address, subject to appropriate firewall controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inside source NAT maps the inside host identity as seen externally. Rewriting only the outside caller's source does not provide the required public destination mapping to the private server.

C:

Dynamic NAT allocates translations from a pool as needed and does not guarantee the specific server consistently appears at 203.0.113.70 for externally initiated sessions.

D:

Routing chooses a path but does not change an RFC1918 private destination into a reachable public address. A public-facing service typically needs mapping and security policy.

Question 95

A configuration automation job is retried after a temporary controller timeout. The job must avoid duplicating VLAN definitions or adding the same ACL rule repeatedly. Which property should the workflow aim for?

  1. Append every configuration command again on each retry regardless of existing state.
  2. Remove all interface configurations before every desired-state enforcement.
  3. Idempotent configuration operations that converge on the intended state across retries.
  4. Randomly vary device hostnames to distinguish retried jobs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Idempotent automation compares actual with desired configuration and applies only needed changes. Replaying a successful step should not accumulate duplicate or contradictory entries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Blind append operations can create repeated ACL lines or inconsistent device states after a partial retry. A robust job checks what was already applied before making another change.

B:

Destructive resets create unnecessary outage risk and do not prove idempotency. An intended small change should converge without removing unrelated working interface settings.

D:

Hostnames label devices and do not control whether a VLAN or rule is already present. Renaming resources to identify retries may worsen inventory and policy consistency.

Question 96

A router knows 10.20.0.0/16 through OSPF and 0.0.0.0/0 through a static default. It receives a packet for 10.20.4.9. Which forwarding entry is selected?

  1. The 10.20.0.0/16 route because it matches more destination bits.
  2. Treat default and /16 entries as equal-prefix routes and apply equal-cost multipath rules despite different destination masks.
  3. The router discards the packet because two routes match.
  4. The default route because its static administrative distance is lower.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Longest-prefix match selects the most specific destination prefix before administrative distance between identical-prefix alternatives matters. The /16 matches 10.20.4.9 more specifically than /0.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A default /0 is less specific than an installed matching /16; ECMP is not automatic across unlike prefix lengths.

C:

Multiple overlapping routes are normal in an IP routing table. The router can deterministically choose the longest matching prefix rather than discard a packet for ambiguity.

D:

A static default's favorable administrative distance does not let it override a more-specific route to the destination. AD compares route-source candidates for the same network prefix.

Question 97

A company builds a site-to-site IPsec tunnel carrying confidential branch traffic over an untrusted ISP. Which IPsec feature provides encryption and traffic integrity in a normal ESP-protected tunnel?

  1. Use routing-protocol authentication alone and transmit application payloads unencrypted through the ISP.
  2. Plain GRE encapsulation with no IPsec protection.
  3. Configure NAT overload on each branch border and assume source translation encrypts the IP payload.
  4. Encapsulating Security Payload with an approved encryption and integrity configuration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

ESP can provide IP payload confidentiality and integrity/authentication with supported cryptographic suites. Tunnel endpoints must authenticate and agree on security associations before protecting selected traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authenticated OSPF or BGP control traffic does not protect the confidentiality of user packets across the WAN.

B:

GRE can encapsulate different packets but by itself does not encrypt their contents or authenticate them. It may be combined with IPsec, but unprotected GRE fails confidentiality.

C:

Address translation can hide internal source numbering but offers no cryptographic confidentiality against WAN observers.

Question 98

One physical enterprise router serves two independent customer VPNs. Each customer uses 10.0.0.0/8 addresses, but their routing decisions must remain isolated on the same chassis. Which feature is suited to this requirement?

  1. Assign both overlapping customer prefixes to a shared global routing table and rely only on different DNS search suffixes.
  2. Use separate VRF routing tables and bind each customer's interfaces to its VRF.
  3. Put all customer interfaces into the global routing table and rely on matching prefixes.
  4. Separate customers by Layer 2 VLANs but keep both identical 10/8 destination prefixes in the same global route context.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

VRFs create separate IP routing instances, allowing identical address prefixes to exist without conflicting forwarding decisions. Interfaces and routes are associated with the intended VRF.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS names do not isolate identical 10/8 routes; separate VRF forwarding contexts are needed for overlapping tenant networks.

C:

A global routing table cannot unambiguously maintain independent routes to identical 10.0.0.0/8 prefixes for two customers. The tenants' forwarding contexts must be separated.

D:

Different VLAN IDs do not by themselves create independent Layer 3 routing tables for overlapping address space.

Question 99

A network technician needs to discover neighbors on a mixed Cisco-and-third-party switch deployment. Both ends support the industry-standard discovery protocol. Which discovery method should the technician enable?

  1. Cisco Discovery Protocol only, assuming non-Cisco switches speak it by default.
  2. ICMP echo requests as a protocol that reports remote chassis and port details by default.
  3. LLDP, which interoperates across compliant vendors.
  4. Rely exclusively on Cisco Discovery Protocol and assume all third-party devices implement proprietary CDP identically.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

LLDP is a standards-based link-layer neighbor-discovery protocol that advertises device and port information across supported vendor platforms. Verify the feature is enabled at both adjacent interfaces.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CDP is Cisco proprietary and may be unsupported on third-party switches. It cannot be assumed as the universal interoperation mechanism in a mixed-vendor environment.

B:

ICMP echo can test IP reachability, not inherently exchange detailed Layer 2 discovery TLVs describing which switch port and chassis connects to the adjacent interface.

D:

CDP can work in Cisco-heavy environments but LLDP provides a standardized discovery option for multivendor neighbors.

Question 100

A Cisco OSPF router on a broadcast LAN shows a neighbor in `2WAY` state, while its DR neighbor is `FULL`. No packet loss or interface errors are observed. What is the best interpretation?

  1. 2WAY can be a normal endpoint state between DROTHER routers that do not form full adjacency with one another.
  2. 2WAY means all routes are missing and OSPF must be disabled.
  3. The state proves that the interface is administratively down.
  4. Any 2WAY neighbor always indicates mismatched area IDs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

On OSPF broadcast networks, a DROTHER may remain 2WAY with another DROTHER while forming full adjacencies with the DR/BDR as required. This is not inherently a fault.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A 2WAY neighbor can still participate in a healthy multiaccess OSPF design when DR/BDR adjacencies are FULL. Disabling routing would break legitimate reachability.

C:

Administratively down interfaces cannot exchange the OSPF Hellos required to establish 2WAY. The observed state proves neighbor discovery occurred on the active interface.

D:

An area mismatch typically prevents compatible OSPF Hello neighbor formation rather than yielding a stable normal 2WAY relationship. Check area settings if symptoms warrant, not automatically.


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