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207 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Nov 05, 2026

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Microsoft SC-500 Practice Test 28

Question 270

DSPM findings identify confidential files exposed to broad internal groups. The team must REDUCE that existing source-data exposure, not merely report more AI usage. Which action addresses the findings?

  1. Analyze risk findings and mapped policies rather than counting AI app launches only.
  2. Use Purview DSPM for AI visibility and investigate high-risk data interactions.
  3. Prioritize at-risk sources and enforce appropriate information protection and permissions.
  4. Relabel the overshared documents confidential but leave anonymous and broad-group access unchanged.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Prioritize highly sensitive assets, narrow SharePoint permissions and links, apply appropriate information protection and DLP as supported, then verify effective access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Analyzing risk findings informs priorities, but does not change the grants that are exposing the confidential records.

B:

DSPM discovery helps identify oversharing, but observation alone does not remove broad SharePoint access to confidential source documents.

D:

A label without verified access controls does not automatically revoke the Everyone or Anyone sharing paths cited in the findings.

Question 271

Purview DSPM for AI produces actionable sensitive-data findings, but no team is assigned to resolve them. What process change establishes ACCOUNTABLE remediation and proof of closure?

  1. Use Purview DSPM for AI visibility and investigate high-risk data interactions.
  2. Suppress unassigned DSPM AI risk findings until every alert can be attributed to an existing project owner.
  3. Analyze risk findings and mapped policies rather than counting AI app launches only.
  4. Assign risk owners and remediation workflow for DSPM findings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Assign affected data/application owners, prioritize by sensitive-data impact, track deadlines and verify actual permission/policy or credential fixes before closing each finding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Discovery and analytics supply findings; they do not allocate remediation ownership, deadline or evidence of closure.

B:

Suppressing an unassigned risk hides evidence instead of establishing remediation accountability and does not lower the underlying exposure.

C:

More policy mapping can clarify exposure severity, but unowned findings still have no accountable party to reduce risk.

Question 272

A Copilot Studio agent is receiving prompt-injection content through retrieval and the team needs a SUPPORTED REAL-TIME DEFENDER PROTECTION FEATURE to inspect and block unsafe tool use. Which configuration specifically enables that protection?

  1. Enable supported real-time protection and enforce untrusted-content boundaries around tool actions.
  2. Inspect agent scope and deployment status, then verify the intended agent is covered.
  3. Block unauthorized action/data paths and inspect runtime detections.
  4. Require deterministic tool permissions and supported runtime protections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Enable the supported Defender real-time protection capability for the Copilot Studio agent, ensuring untrusted retrieved content cannot authorize unsafe tool actions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inventory and connector coverage checks establish eligible agents, but cannot by themselves reject a malicious runtime prompt-injection action.

C:

Investigating runtime detections without enabling the supported preventive policy is insufficient when protection must block the injected tool invocation.

D:

Deterministic tool authorization is necessary defense in depth, but it does not itself turn on the requested Defender real-time protection feature.

Question 273

A scoped Microsoft Defender AI-agent real-time blocking policy is active, but a Copilot Studio agent has no coverage because it is excluded. Which verification addresses THIS agent’s policy scope and prerequisite connection?

  1. Enable supported real-time protection and enforce untrusted-content boundaries around tool actions.
  2. Block unauthorized action/data paths and inspect runtime detections.
  3. Inspect agent scope and deployment status, then verify the intended agent is covered.
  4. Enable agent protection for the tenant while explicitly excluding the affected Copilot Studio agent and assume it is protected.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect agent identity/platform inventory, the Copilot Studio connector, the blocking rule include/exclude selection and supported preview coverage; test an applicable action to confirm evaluation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A runtime protection capability is not automatically applied to every agent; it still needs supported onboarding and effective policy targeting.

B:

Blocking a detected risky tool action is useful after protection is correctly scoped; it cannot cover an agent omitted from the current policy.

D:

Tenant-level enablement while explicitly excluding this agent is not evidence that its tool invocations are inspected or blocked.

Question 274

A connected agent action is attempting to export restricted customer records to an unapproved endpoint. Which immediate enforcement and investigation response blocks the OUTBOUND TOOL ACTION?

  1. Depend on a model refusal message while retaining an unrestricted connector action that can export the protected records.
  2. Enable supported real-time protection and enforce untrusted-content boundaries around tool actions.
  3. Inspect agent scope and deployment status, then verify the intended agent is covered.
  4. Block unauthorized action/data paths and inspect runtime detections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Deny unauthorized connector destinations and permissions at the API/tool boundary, use supported runtime blocking when covered, and inspect identity and action evidence for containment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A model refusal is non-deterministic and leaves the high-privilege connector callable; it cannot guarantee that restricted records stay inside the approved boundary.

B:

General injection protections are useful, but the stated threat is an actual restricted data export that requires enforceable action/destination authorization.

C:

Verifying whether an agent is onboarded does not block the specific restricted connector export observed in this incident.

Question 275

A high-impact connector is callable by a privileged agent even when the model has been told to refuse unauthorized requests. Which control prevents actions if the refusal is bypassed?

  1. Add a written instruction not to disclose data, but leave all connectors callable with full service-account permissions.
  2. Inspect agent scope and deployment status, then verify the intended agent is covered.
  3. Enable supported real-time protection and enforce untrusted-content boundaries around tool actions.
  4. Require deterministic tool permissions and supported runtime protections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Give the agent/task minimum scopes and enforce deterministic API-side identity, parameter, resource and operation checks; add supported runtime defense in depth.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Prompt text alone cannot enforce a downstream connector permission check; a tool could still execute under a broadly privileged service principal.

B:

Agent protection scope checks are useful for onboarding but cannot establish that the connected API refuses an unauthorized operation.

C:

Runtime detection may block covered threats, but it is not a substitute for checking each operation against effective connector/API authorization.

Question 276

An autonomous agent uses an Entra agent identity for APP-ONLY tokens to a protected resource. The tenant has not scoped any applicable Conditional Access blocking policy to it. What should the admin configure?

  1. Apply supported Conditional Access to the agent identity and protected resource scope.
  2. Verify supported agent-specific controls and identity type rather than copying user MFA settings blindly.
  3. Disable or revoke the affected identity/token path and validate loss of access.
  4. Verify workload/agent inclusion and effective policy evaluation separately from human sign-ins.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Select the actual agent identity/blueprint and target Entra-protected resource with a supported agent Conditional Access policy and available Block controls, considering licensing and agent-risk preview limitations.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Interactive-user MFA grants are not available to autonomous agent identity subjects; policy conditions and controls must match this agent identity type.

C:

Disabling a compromised identity is incident containment, not the normal conditional admission policy required for a healthy new agent.

D:

Reviewing agent sign-in evaluation can diagnose a policy after it is configured but cannot enforce the presently missing rule.

Question 277

An Entra Agent ID workload is accessing data despite policies designed for interactive employees. Select THREE actions that identify the agent identity, enforce a supported applicable workload policy, and verify its effective access.

  1. Check effective Conditional Access evaluation for agent sign-ins rather than inferring behavior from human sign-in logs.
  2. Copy the policy used for interactive employees to the agent without verifying that its identity type or grant requirement is supported.
  3. Copy a human-user MFA policy to an autonomous agent without checking the token subject, supported controls or the actual agent identity.
  4. Test a denied-agent access path to demonstrate that the intended control is enforced.
  5. Verify whether the actual agent/workload identity is included in the policy scope.
  6. Disable or revoke the affected identity/token path and validate loss of access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect the effective Conditional Access result for the agent identity and target resource. Employee interactive sign-ins do not show whether this nonhuman principal was evaluated.

D:

Test a prohibited agent-token access path and verify the intended block in the effective policy evaluation before declaring enforcement successful.

E:

Confirm that the policy explicitly includes the agent identity or its blueprint and the intended resource. A policy for employees does not automatically cover agent-only tokens.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Agent identities are separate policy subjects; cloning a human-user MFA grant can target the wrong object or rely on an unsupported interactive control.

C:

Noninteractive agent identities cannot complete human MFA challenges, and supported agent-identity Conditional Access uses Block rather than ordinary user grant controls.

F:

Revocation may be necessary during containment, but it would not establish whether the proposed Conditional Access policy actually matched the intended agent identity.

Question 278

A registered Entra agent identity is confirmed compromised and its outbound resource access must stop. Which incident response actually revokes its ability to obtain/use authorized access?

  1. Hide the affected agent from the admin-center list but retain its Entra Agent ID, sessions and resource assignments.
  2. Verify supported agent-specific controls and identity type rather than copying user MFA settings blindly.
  3. Verify workload/agent inclusion and effective policy evaluation separately from human sign-ins.
  4. Disable or revoke the affected identity/token path and validate loss of access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Disable the affected agent principal and revoke/rotate exposed credentials, remove relevant grants, and verify access denial with attention to token lifetime/continuous access evaluation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing a display entry does not disable the agent principal, revoke grants or invalidate the credentials and sessions it can use.

B:

Choosing an appropriate CA policy is a preventive gate, not sufficient containment of an identity already compromised and holding credentials or tokens.

C:

A policy-scope audit alone does not remove the compromised principal’s ability to act until the effective access path is blocked or revoked.

Question 279

A team assumes that a human-user Conditional Access policy automatically protects a nonhuman Entra agent. Select TWO first checks that verify whether agent-specific policy support and correct identity targeting apply.

  1. Confirm that the identity is an agent/workload identity rather than an interactive human user.
  2. Disable or revoke the affected identity/token path and validate loss of access.
  3. Apply an interactive-user MFA rule to a nonhuman agent identity while assuming every user grant works identically for agents.
  4. Select supported agent-specific Conditional Access controls instead of assuming a user MFA grant applies identically.
  5. Configure the human-user CA policy by username display text and assume that it targets the nonhuman agent object.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Identify whether the token represents an agent identity, an agent user account, or delegated user access; the supported Conditional Access grants and targeting differ by access pattern.

D:

Use a supported agent-identity Conditional Access policy and controls, such as appropriately scoped Block with explicitly approved agents excluded, rather than assuming a user MFA grant applies.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Revoking a compromised token may be a valid incident response, but it is not the first policy-design check needed to verify agent-specific targeting and grant support.

C:

Human MFA is not an applicable remediation for an autonomous agent identity that cannot perform an interactive authentication step.

E:

Matching a human display name does not select the agent identity object or resource token subject; verify the actual principal selected in the policy.

Question 280

A compromised Entra agent identity has write permissions over multiple business systems. To estimate its POTENTIAL blast radius (not merely observed past actions), which entitlement-focused investigation comes first?

  1. Bind tool actions and audit receipts to a verifiable agent identity and caller context.
  2. Correlate Defender XDR activity with known agent permissions and target resources.
  3. Analyze its actual entitlements and reachable data to estimate blast radius.
  4. Apply supported Conditional Access to the agent identity and protected resource scope.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Enumerate the compromised agent’s actual effective roles, delegated source permissions and reachable resources to estimate potential data writes and downstream exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Agent attribution and traceability support investigation, but do not enumerate the compromised identity’s effective write entitlements.

B:

Runtime activity correlation can show observed actions but underestimates potential blast radius unless combined with effective entitlements and reachable data.

D:

Applying a new Conditional Access rule can contain future access but cannot quantify resources already reachable under the compromised identity.


Implementing End-to-End Security Controls for Cloud and AI Workloads (SC-500) Practice Tests

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