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Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 65

Question 640

The hunt asks whether a malicious program modified a Windows autorun registry key. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Query DeviceProcessEvents and inspect parent process fields.
  2. Query DeviceFileEvents for file creation and path evidence.
  3. Query DeviceNetworkEvents for remote address and initiating process.
  4. Query DeviceRegistryEvents for the relevant key path and action type.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DeviceRegistryEvents exposes supported registry changes and initiating activity. This directly addresses the requirement to find registry persistence changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DeviceProcessEvents records process creation context and initiating process relationships. This addresses hunt for suspicious process ancestry; it does not directly satisfy find registry persistence changes.

B:

DeviceFileEvents captures supported file creation and modification activity. Its intended use is to detect suspicious endpoint file placement, whereas this case requires the analyst to find registry persistence changes.

C:

DeviceNetworkEvents describes endpoint network connections and their process context. That action focuses on identify outbound endpoint network connections rather than the specified need to find registry persistence changes.

Question 641

A report must return only a stable set of fields in a defined display order. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Use project with the desired output column order.
  2. Keep the necessary join key in the projection until correlation is complete.
  3. Use project-rename or a supported alias expression.
  4. Use extend to add the computed indicator expression.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Project chooses and orders the result columns. This directly addresses the requirement to control the hunting result schema.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Dropping key fields prematurely prevents reliable downstream joins. Its intended use is to retain KQL join keys, whereas this case requires the analyst to control the hunting result schema.

C:

Column renaming clarifies output without changing the underlying observations. That action focuses on label hunting output fields clearly rather than the specified need to control the hunting result schema.

D:

Extend adds calculated fields without dropping the rest of the row. This addresses enrich hunting rows with a derived field; it does not directly satisfy control the hunting result schema.

Question 642

A hostname embeds `prod` as part of longer text and the investigator must match that substring. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Use the appropriate KQL case-insensitive matching operator.
  2. Use a contains predicate against the hostname field.
  3. Use a suitable has token search on the normalized command text.
  4. Use exact string equality against the identifier column.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Contains finds a sequence of characters inside larger strings. This directly addresses the requirement to locate an embedded hostname substring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Case-insensitive comparison prevents variation in casing from hiding matching values. This addresses normalize case sensitivity in a hunt; it does not directly satisfy locate an embedded hostname substring.

C:

Has matches terms rather than arbitrary substrings when the token boundaries fit. That action focuses on find a complete command token rather than the specified need to locate an embedded hostname substring.

D:

Equality compares the whole value instead of fuzzy word or substring content. This addresses match one exact security identifier; it does not directly satisfy locate an embedded hostname substring.

Question 643

The team finds a repeatable malicious behavior in advanced hunting and wants it monitored continuously. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Validate response authorization and supported action constraints before enabling high-impact automation.
  2. Apply narrow evidence-based filtering before turning on the detection.
  3. Convert the validated KQL into a supported custom detection rule.
  4. Verify rule enabled state, recent matched data and the updated query.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Custom detection rules operationalize query logic into recurring alerts. This directly addresses the requirement to promote a hunt into continuous monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Auto-response needs scoped evidence and operational safety controls. This addresses gate automatic hunting-driven containment; it does not directly satisfy promote a hunt into continuous monitoring.

B:

Rule tuning improves signal-to-noise without discarding all endpoint monitoring. Its intended use is to reduce false-positive custom detections, whereas this case requires the analyst to promote a hunt into continuous monitoring.

D:

Detection silence may reflect logic, state or telemetry rather than true absence. This addresses troubleshoot a silent custom detection; it does not directly satisfy promote a hunt into continuous monitoring.

Question 644

The SOC needs to find on-premises domain authentication events associated with a suspicious account. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Query CloudAppEvents with application, account and activity fields.
  2. Query the appropriate Entra service principal sign-in event table.
  3. Query DeviceInfo for endpoint properties and state.
  4. Query IdentityLogonEvents and related identity tables.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Identity sign-in telemetry covers supported domain and identity authentication. This directly addresses the requirement to hunt suspicious on-premises logons.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CloudAppEvents provides cloud application operation context when integrated. This addresses hunt anomalous cloud application activity; it does not directly satisfy hunt suspicious on-premises logons.

B:

Workload identity sign-ins differ from end-user interactive authentication records. Its intended use is to investigate service principal authentication, whereas this case requires the analyst to hunt suspicious on-premises logons.

C:

DeviceInfo describes devices rather than individual process or file actions. That action focuses on retrieve endpoint inventory information rather than the specified need to hunt suspicious on-premises logons.

Question 645

A query returns all endpoint activity but the SOC needs only rows whose ActionType equals a known event value. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Use a KQL where predicate on ActionType before further processing.
  2. Use the KQL take operator with an explicit row count.
  3. Use project to return the specified columns.
  4. Use sort by Timestamp descending after the account filter.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Where filters input records based on a boolean condition. This directly addresses the requirement to select events matching one exact action.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Take returns a bounded sample without providing exhaustive event analysis. Its intended use is to inspect a small event sample, whereas this case requires the analyst to select events matching one exact action.

C:

Project restricts output fields while preserving rows. That action focuses on select only required hunting result columns rather than the specified need to select events matching one exact action.

D:

Sort orders matching rows by their timestamps. This addresses rank filtered events by recency; it does not directly satisfy select events matching one exact action.

Question 646

A cloud activity record stores additional fields as dynamic JSON and the analyst needs one nested permission name. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Validate the raw payload and repair parsing assumptions before extracting fields.
  2. Use a supported dynamic property access or parse_json expression.
  3. Cast the extracted dynamic value to a suitable numeric type.
  4. Use mv-expand on the relevant dynamic array.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Dynamic parsing exposes nested structured attributes for filtering. This directly addresses the requirement to extract a nested JSON permission.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Invalid serialized JSON cannot reliably yield nested properties. This addresses diagnose malformed JSON event payload; it does not directly satisfy extract a nested JSON permission.

C:

Explicit conversion preserves numeric comparison semantics. That action focuses on type nested JSON numeric values correctly rather than the specified need to extract a nested JSON permission.

D:

Mv-expand converts dynamic collection elements into independent rows. This addresses expand role membership arrays; it does not directly satisfy extract a nested JSON permission.

Question 647

The team needs the exact sequence of process events with full timestamps, not aggregate buckets. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Use bin(TimeGenerated, 1d) after consistent timezone handling.
  2. Use summarize count() by bin(TimeGenerated, 5m) with the relevant entity.
  3. Preserve Timestamp and order events without binning away chronology.
  4. Remove unintended fine-grained grouping keys from summarize.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Time aggregation trades fine event order for summaries. This directly addresses the requirement to retain detailed process chronology.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Daily bins reduce events to comparable time intervals. This addresses aggregate daily incident volumes; it does not directly satisfy retain detailed process chronology.

B:

Bin groups datetime values into fixed-size buckets suitable for trends. Its intended use is to build five-minute failure intervals, whereas this case requires the analyst to retain detailed process chronology.

D:

Extra grouping columns subdivide counts into separate buckets. This addresses correct oversegmented time aggregation; it does not directly satisfy retain detailed process chronology.

Question 648

A graph query reveals two identities sharing access to a privileged resource; the SOC needs an audit explanation. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Define the supported node and relationship mappings before graph analysis.
  2. Use the supported Sentinel Graph query or exploration capability with the required entity schema.
  3. Validate the exact observed relationship and impact before any remediation.
  4. Pivot to underlying sign-in or resource audit events for the edges.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Graph relationships are summaries of source evidence that still needs validation. This directly addresses the requirement to corroborate privileged graph relationships.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Graph reasoning requires meaningful entity identifiers and edges. This addresses prepare event data for graph relationship analysis; it does not directly satisfy corroborate privileged graph relationships.

B:

Graph exploration models relevant entities and links instead of only flat event counts. Its intended use is to investigate related Sentinel security entities, whereas this case requires the analyst to corroborate privileged graph relationships.

C:

Graph proximity is not proof that every neighboring entity is compromised. That action focuses on avoid destructive action from unverified graph associations rather than the specified need to corroborate privileged graph relationships.

Question 649

A hunt returns duplicated joined rows because each host has many process events and many network events. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Tighten join keys and reduce candidate events by time and event identity.
  2. Use a leftouter join from device inventory to the alert summary.
  3. Join compatible process and network tables on stable device/process keys.
  4. Use an inner join on the appropriate common device key.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Broad many-to-many joins multiply records and may create false relationships. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid false cross-event join expansion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Leftouter joins preserve unmatched rows from the left input. Its intended use is to retain all devices in alert coverage report, whereas this case requires the analyst to avoid false cross-event join expansion.

C:

A join correlates event streams using shared identifiers and qualified time context. That action focuses on combine endpoint process and network evidence rather than the specified need to avoid false cross-event join expansion.

D:

Inner joins keep matching keys from both datasets. This addresses locate devices with both independent signals; it does not directly satisfy avoid false cross-event join expansion.

Question 650

A hunt seeks the number of unique devices associated with each suspicious account. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Use summarize max(Timestamp) by DeviceId.
  2. Use summarize dcount(DeviceId) by account.
  3. Use summarize make_set(RemoteIP) by DeviceId within supported limits.
  4. Use summarize count() by AccountName after filtering failed logons.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Distinct count estimates unique devices rather than raw event volume. This directly addresses the requirement to estimate distinct devices per identity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Maximum aggregation computes the newest time value in each device group. This addresses derive latest observed device event; it does not directly satisfy estimate distinct devices per identity.

C:

Set aggregation builds distinct value collections for each group. That action focuses on collect unique remote IPs by host rather than the specified need to estimate distinct devices per identity.

D:

Count aggregation returns the number of matching events per group. This addresses count failed authentication events by account; it does not directly satisfy estimate distinct devices per identity.


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