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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 64

Question 630

A discovery case contains privileged communications and a junior analyst proposes sharing unredacted results with every SOC staff member. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Report observed operations, search scope and missing evidence separately.
  2. Restrict evidence access to case-authorized reviewers and audit access grants.
  3. Normalize and annotate time zones before writing the final incident chronology.
  4. Export and preserve necessary records through approved methods while still available.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Case-based authorization protects privileged content while preserving accountable review. This directly addresses the requirement to enforce need-to-know access to privileged evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Precise caveats prevent absence of logs from being mistaken for absence of compromise. This addresses communicate limits of Microsoft 365 audit evidence; it does not directly satisfy enforce need-to-know access to privileged evidence.

C:

Explicit timezone labels prevent false sequence conclusions. That action focuses on maintain consistent forensic timestamp reporting rather than the specified need to enforce need-to-know access to privileged evidence.

D:

Delayed preservation risks loss when the retention window expires. This addresses preserve expiring audit evidence; it does not directly satisfy enforce need-to-know access to privileged evidence.

Question 631

Graph activity volume is high and responders want only permission-changing calls from a defined service principal. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Verify data source health before interpreting absent events as benign behavior.
  2. Configure the supported Microsoft Graph activity log source and validate event arrival.
  3. Filter by application identifier, operation and outcome within the available event schema.
  4. Inspect the deployed Graph activity table schema and correct the query.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Targeted API-query filters reduce unrelated requests. This directly addresses the requirement to isolate privilege-affecting app API calls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Telemetry outage creates a monitoring blind spot rather than proof of inactivity. This addresses distinguish Graph telemetry gaps from no abuse; it does not directly satisfy isolate privilege-affecting app API calls.

B:

Sign-ins and Graph request activity are distinct audit streams. Its intended use is to add application API request visibility, whereas this case requires the analyst to isolate privilege-affecting app API calls.

D:

Table and field names must match the actual ingestion integration. This addresses fix Graph activity query source; it does not directly satisfy isolate privilege-affecting app API calls.

Question 632

A tenant wants to investigate application calls to Microsoft Graph that modify directory entities. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Correlate Graph activity logs with service principal sign-ins and granted permissions.
  2. Attribute the call using actor and authentication context rather than assuming an interactive UI action.
  3. Inspect request status and follow-on entity audit events before concluding modification.
  4. Collect and query supported Microsoft Graph activity logs with relevant operation and app fields.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Graph activity records can show API caller and request context for supported operations. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate Microsoft Graph API access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

API and identity evidence link a workload identity to its observed use. This addresses investigate possible application API abuse; it does not directly satisfy investigate Microsoft Graph API access.

B:

API events may originate from applications or automation. Its intended use is to distinguish Graph API activity from UI usage, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate Microsoft Graph API access.

C:

Failed API calls do not establish that the requested operation occurred. That action focuses on determine whether an API change succeeded rather than the specified need to investigate Microsoft Graph API access.

Question 633

The team needs all discovered remote IP values grouped into a compact list per device. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Use summarize make_set(RemoteIP) by DeviceId within supported limits.
  2. Use summarize max(Timestamp) by DeviceId.
  3. Use summarize dcount(DeviceId) by account.
  4. Use summarize count() by AccountName after filtering failed logons.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Set aggregation builds distinct value collections for each group. This directly addresses the requirement to collect unique remote IPs by host.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Maximum aggregation computes the newest time value in each device group. Its intended use is to derive latest observed device event, whereas this case requires the analyst to collect unique remote IPs by host.

C:

Distinct count estimates unique devices rather than raw event volume. That action focuses on estimate distinct devices per identity rather than the specified need to collect unique remote IPs by host.

D:

Count aggregation returns the number of matching events per group. This addresses count failed authentication events by account; it does not directly satisfy collect unique remote IPs by host.

Question 634

An analyst wants to claim complete attack coverage from one sampled `take 100` hunting query. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Preserve only valid device-scoped evidence and verify entity attribution before action.
  2. Replace the sample with a bounded comprehensive query over the required time and scope.
  3. Review join cardinality and distinct event IDs before reporting counts.
  4. Report both event count and distinct user count with appropriate aggregations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Take returns a sample and cannot establish all matching events. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid treating sample results as exhaustive.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Missing identifiers prevent reliable device-targeted response. This addresses avoid containment based on unattributed hunting rows; it does not directly satisfy avoid treating sample results as exhaustive.

C:

Duplicate joins inflate events without corresponding real activity. That action focuses on correct joined-event count inflation rather than the specified need to avoid treating sample results as exhaustive.

D:

Volume and affected-entity breadth measure different attack dimensions. This addresses distinguish event volume from impacted users; it does not directly satisfy avoid treating sample results as exhaustive.

Question 635

A graph includes historical benign devices and the SOC wants only nodes active during the attack. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Build a supported hunting graph of observed entity relationships.
  2. Inspect graph account-device relationships and corroborate associated sign-in events.
  3. Filter graph evidence by the relevant incident interval and suspicious edge types.
  4. Validate stronger identity and event edges instead of treating a shared infrastructure link as compromise.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Temporal scope reduces misleading historical associations. This directly addresses the requirement to restrict blast-radius graph to attack activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Graph edges can show account-to-device and device-to-device links in an attack. This addresses map compromise blast radius; it does not directly satisfy restrict blast-radius graph to attack activity.

B:

Entity linkage can reveal a suspected pivot identity across host clusters. Its intended use is to identify a potential lateral-movement bridge account, whereas this case requires the analyst to restrict blast-radius graph to attack activity.

D:

Shared addresses are weak attribution signals without additional evidence. This addresses avoid overinterpreting graph shared-IP edges; it does not directly satisfy restrict blast-radius graph to attack activity.

Question 636

An analyst discovers a malicious command line but plans to keep only the final aggregate count. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Record the final query version, time filters and source table schema.
  2. Capture relevant enrichment version or timestamp alongside the original events.
  3. Use the authorized evidence repository with appropriate access controls.
  4. Preserve the supporting full event rows and query provenance for the investigation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Aggregates alone cannot reproduce exact attacker commands or source identities. This directly addresses the requirement to retain underlying hunt evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Reproducible query context enables accurate interpretation of changing results. This addresses make hunting findings reproducible; it does not directly satisfy retain underlying hunt evidence.

B:

Context data changes can alter downstream attribution without changing raw events. Its intended use is to preserve hunting enrichment provenance, whereas this case requires the analyst to retain underlying hunt evidence.

C:

Hunting outputs may contain sensitive process, identity and network data. That action focuses on protect exported threat hunting records rather than the specified need to retain underlying hunt evidence.

Question 637

An analyst wants to know which account provides the bridge between two otherwise separate groups of affected devices. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Inspect graph account-device relationships and corroborate associated sign-in events.
  2. Build a supported hunting graph of observed entity relationships.
  3. Validate stronger identity and event edges instead of treating a shared infrastructure link as compromise.
  4. Filter graph evidence by the relevant incident interval and suspicious edge types.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Entity linkage can reveal a suspected pivot identity across host clusters. This directly addresses the requirement to identify a potential lateral-movement bridge account.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Graph edges can show account-to-device and device-to-device links in an attack. Its intended use is to map compromise blast radius, whereas this case requires the analyst to identify a potential lateral-movement bridge account.

C:

Shared addresses are weak attribution signals without additional evidence. That action focuses on avoid overinterpreting graph shared-IP edges rather than the specified need to identify a potential lateral-movement bridge account.

D:

Temporal scope reduces misleading historical associations. This addresses restrict blast-radius graph to attack activity; it does not directly satisfy identify a potential lateral-movement bridge account.

Question 638

A SOC wants to automatically delete a device because it appears connected to a malicious node in a graph. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Pivot to underlying sign-in or resource audit events for the edges.
  2. Validate the exact observed relationship and impact before any remediation.
  3. Define the supported node and relationship mappings before graph analysis.
  4. Use the supported Sentinel Graph query or exploration capability with the required entity schema.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Graph proximity is not proof that every neighboring entity is compromised. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid destructive action from unverified graph associations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Graph relationships are summaries of source evidence that still needs validation. This addresses corroborate privileged graph relationships; it does not directly satisfy avoid destructive action from unverified graph associations.

C:

Graph reasoning requires meaningful entity identifiers and edges. That action focuses on prepare event data for graph relationship analysis rather than the specified need to avoid destructive action from unverified graph associations.

D:

Graph exploration models relevant entities and links instead of only flat event counts. This addresses investigate related Sentinel security entities; it does not directly satisfy avoid destructive action from unverified graph associations.

Question 639

The SOC needs to compare actual privileged sign-ins with a complete expected privileged-account inventory. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Put the observed events on the left and approved identities on the right.
  2. Use a leftanti join against the approved account set.
  3. Use a leftanti or appropriate set difference to find accounts missing from one side.
  4. Use narrow approved exceptions while keeping other VPN activity in the hunt.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Set differences expose unmatched identities between reference and observed records. This directly addresses the requirement to detect mismatches between observed and expected accounts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Leftanti direction determines which unmatched records survive. This addresses correct a reversed exclusion join; it does not directly satisfy detect mismatches between observed and expected accounts.

B:

Leftanti returns left-side records that have no matching key on the right. Its intended use is to identify unauthorized account activity, whereas this case requires the analyst to detect mismatches between observed and expected accounts.

D:

Large exclusion lists can conceal real attacker sessions using the same egress. This addresses avoid broad VPN-based hunting blind spots; it does not directly satisfy detect mismatches between observed and expected accounts.

Question 640

The hunt asks whether a malicious program modified a Windows autorun registry key. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Query DeviceProcessEvents and inspect parent process fields.
  2. Query DeviceFileEvents for file creation and path evidence.
  3. Query DeviceNetworkEvents for remote address and initiating process.
  4. Query DeviceRegistryEvents for the relevant key path and action type.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DeviceRegistryEvents exposes supported registry changes and initiating activity. This directly addresses the requirement to find registry persistence changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DeviceProcessEvents records process creation context and initiating process relationships. This addresses hunt for suspicious process ancestry; it does not directly satisfy find registry persistence changes.

B:

DeviceFileEvents captures supported file creation and modification activity. Its intended use is to detect suspicious endpoint file placement, whereas this case requires the analyst to find registry persistence changes.

C:

DeviceNetworkEvents describes endpoint network connections and their process context. That action focuses on identify outbound endpoint network connections rather than the specified need to find registry persistence changes.


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