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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 48

Question 470

The SOC deletes a malicious mailbox rule but ignores active sessions on the compromised account. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Investigate and remove the unauthorized inbox or forwarding rule after evidence capture.
  2. Revoke suspicious sessions and remediate account access after rule removal.
  3. Correlate Exchange mailbox audit events with Entra sign-ins and rule changes.
  4. Compare the current rule against documented change approvals and recipient history.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Removing the rule alone does not close an active attacker session. This directly addresses the requirement to contain mailbox compromise beyond the rule.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Malicious forwarding rules are a common persistence and data theft mechanism in compromised mailboxes. This addresses remove mailbox forwarding persistence; it does not directly satisfy contain mailbox compromise beyond the rule.

C:

Mailbox and identity logs reconstruct rule creation and associated account access. That action focuses on attribute a suspicious inbox rule rather than the specified need to contain mailbox compromise beyond the rule.

D:

Change context separates routine routing from newly introduced suspicious destinations. This addresses identify unauthorized forwarding changes; it does not directly satisfy contain mailbox compromise beyond the rule.

Question 471

The same phishing page is hosted on a new domain and a narrow domain block no longer catches it. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Investigate time-of-click URL protection and current redirect chain.
  2. Review Safe Links click verdict and resulting endpoint or identity evidence.
  3. Investigate URL behavior and campaign indicators beyond the original hostname.
  4. Treat delivery and click evidence separately while testing logging coverage.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Broader campaign evidence avoids treating one hostname as the full attack. This directly addresses the requirement to identify a phishing campaign domain rotation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Link reputation can change after delivery; click-time checks provide updated context. This addresses assess delayed URL weaponization; it does not directly satisfy identify a phishing campaign domain rotation.

B:

A blocked click does not necessarily mean credential submission or full compromise. Its intended use is to determine impact of a blocked malicious URL, whereas this case requires the analyst to identify a phishing campaign domain rotation.

D:

Absence of clicks may reflect no interaction or incomplete telemetry and requires verification. This addresses distinguish email delivery from interaction; it does not directly satisfy identify a phishing campaign domain rotation.

Question 472

A risky sign-in is correctly blocked by Conditional Access and the SOC wants to know if the account was accessed. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Inspect sign-in risk details and correlated device, IP and user activity.
  2. Contain the account and investigate authentication method changes under the response runbook.
  3. Verify proxy network context and document the benign determination.
  4. Review sign-in outcome and token issuance before concluding access succeeded.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Blocked authentication attempts do not imply a valid session was created. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish attempted from successful account access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risk evidence becomes actionable when linked to an affected account and observed activity. This addresses investigate likely compromised cloud sign-in; it does not directly satisfy distinguish attempted from successful account access.

B:

Risk plus unapproved authentication registration can indicate attacker persistence. Its intended use is to respond to suspicious MFA enrollment, whereas this case requires the analyst to distinguish attempted from successful account access.

C:

Known network routing can create geolocation anomalies without credential theft. That action focuses on adjudicate legitimate sign-in anomalies rather than the specified need to distinguish attempted from successful account access.

Question 473

Microsoft Entra reports a high-risk sign-in from an unfamiliar device immediately after a known phishing click. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Inspect sign-in risk details and correlated device, IP and user activity.
  2. Review sign-in outcome and token issuance before concluding access succeeded.
  3. Contain the account and investigate authentication method changes under the response runbook.
  4. Verify proxy network context and document the benign determination.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Risk evidence becomes actionable when linked to an affected account and observed activity. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate likely compromised cloud sign-in.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Blocked authentication attempts do not imply a valid session was created. Its intended use is to distinguish attempted from successful account access, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate likely compromised cloud sign-in.

C:

Risk plus unapproved authentication registration can indicate attacker persistence. That action focuses on respond to suspicious MFA enrollment rather than the specified need to investigate likely compromised cloud sign-in.

D:

Known network routing can create geolocation anomalies without credential theft. This addresses adjudicate legitimate sign-in anomalies; it does not directly satisfy investigate likely compromised cloud sign-in.

Question 474

An analyst sees a storage posture recommendation but needs actual blob deletion evidence. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Review storage access logs, actor identity and network context for the alert window.
  2. Search storage data-plane diagnostic logs for the deletion operation.
  3. Investigate the SAS creation and revoke or rotate exposed access as authorized.
  4. Validate data classification and approved exposure before labeling the configuration malicious.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Resource-level audit operations show whether and when blobs were deleted. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate actual blob deletion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Data-plane telemetry helps determine whether an exfiltration attempt succeeded. This addresses assess suspicious cloud storage downloads; it does not directly satisfy investigate actual blob deletion.

C:

Overprivileged SAS tokens can enable unauthorized access after issuance. That action focuses on contain suspicious storage delegated access rather than the specified need to investigate actual blob deletion.

D:

Public access can be intentional for non-sensitive datasets but needs explicit governance. This addresses distinguish approved public storage from risk; it does not directly satisfy investigate actual blob deletion.

Question 475

A responder wants to understand which domain controller handled a suspected replication event. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Investigate a potential DCSync attempt and its requesting identity.
  2. Review and remove unnecessary replication permissions after impact assessment.
  3. Correlate Defender for Identity evidence with directory audit and controller details.
  4. Validate the approved source identity and change window before suppressing the signal.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Controller attribution helps determine affected directory scope. This directly addresses the requirement to identify the directory replication target.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unauthorized replication operations can expose directory password material. This addresses detect suspicious directory replication behavior; it does not directly satisfy identify the directory replication target.

B:

Least-privilege directory access reduces the ability to retrieve sensitive account material. Its intended use is to remediate excessive directory replication privileges, whereas this case requires the analyst to identify the directory replication target.

D:

Authorized replication activity differs from unexpected privilege misuse. This addresses adjudicate authorized directory replication; it does not directly satisfy identify the directory replication target.

Question 476

A SOC wants to use AI-generated context without granting it permissions broader than the analyst's role. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Reject the unsafe action and follow approved incident response procedures.
  2. Open the original source events and reconstruct the timeline before adjudication.
  3. Verify the recommended evidence and obtain required approval before high-impact containment.
  4. Enforce applicable identity and least-privilege access controls for the Copilot workflow.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Assisted investigation should respect the security boundaries of connected data and actions. This directly addresses the requirement to restrict agentic investigation data access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security response should not disable essential forensic visibility based on untrusted suggestions. This addresses prevent unsafe AI response recommendations; it does not directly satisfy restrict agentic investigation data access.

B:

Source telemetry anchors chronology more reliably than a generated narrative. Its intended use is to verify AI-inferred lateral-movement sequence, whereas this case requires the analyst to restrict agentic investigation data access.

C:

Assistant action suggestions need human validation and existing authorization boundaries. That action focuses on gate AI-proposed server isolation rather than the specified need to restrict agentic investigation data access.

Question 477

The cloud team closes an alert after restarting the VM, but an attacker credential may still be valid. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Verify identity and credential exposure before calling the incident resolved.
  2. Verify image provenance and runtime process evidence before removing affected pods.
  3. Examine exploit or process telemetry separately from the missing patch recommendation.
  4. Prioritize based on asset criticality and corroborated impact, not severity labels alone.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Restarting an endpoint does not invalidate stolen cloud credentials. This directly addresses the requirement to prevent incomplete cloud compromise remediation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Image identity and process behavior establish a defensible incident response. Its intended use is to correlate image provenance with container compromise, whereas this case requires the analyst to prevent incomplete cloud compromise remediation.

C:

Vulnerability exposure does not establish exploit execution. That action focuses on distinguish patch posture from successful exploitation rather than the specified need to prevent incomplete cloud compromise remediation.

D:

Business impact and observed threat context affect real response ordering. This addresses prioritize cloud incidents by actual risk; it does not directly satisfy prevent incomplete cloud compromise remediation.

Question 478

An identity phishing alert predates a device malware alert, which predates suspicious cloud data access. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Investigate task creation, process lineage and account context before claiming persistence.
  2. Assemble the ordered phishing-to-endpoint-to-cloud evidence chain.
  3. Separate exposure or file presence from confirmed execution when scoping the incident.
  4. Convert verified distinctive behaviors into tested detection coverage and track gaps.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Multidomain event ordering identifies how a compromise progressed. This directly addresses the requirement to reconstruct attack sequence from initial access to impact.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Task presence alone has both administrative and malicious explanations. This addresses validate scheduled-task persistence; it does not directly satisfy reconstruct attack sequence from initial access to impact.

C:

Hash presence does not establish that every file ran. That action focuses on distinguish artifact distribution from execution impact rather than the specified need to reconstruct attack sequence from initial access to impact.

D:

Postincident analytic improvements prevent recurrence beyond one-time cleanup. This addresses turn attack lessons into measurable detection controls; it does not directly satisfy reconstruct attack sequence from initial access to impact.

Question 479

A user reports suspicious deletion of files in a SharePoint site after an unexpected sign-in. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Review historical sharing activity in Purview Audit and relevant service logs.
  2. Verify audit retention, data availability and search filters before concluding no event occurred.
  3. Search the relevant Purview Audit operations for file deletion and actor details.
  4. Normalize audit and sign-in event times to a consistent UTC timeline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Unified audit records can show supported file operations and user activity. This directly addresses the requirement to identify suspicious SharePoint deletion activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Audit operations provide prior sharing changes that current access lists may not show. This addresses prove a historical sharing action; it does not directly satisfy identify suspicious SharePoint deletion activity.

B:

Missing retained records are not proof that the activity did not happen. Its intended use is to assess audit evidence gaps, whereas this case requires the analyst to identify suspicious SharePoint deletion activity.

D:

Consistent time zones prevent misleading activity ordering. This addresses reconstruct a correct multi-source audit chronology; it does not directly satisfy identify suspicious SharePoint deletion activity.

Question 480

A message claims to be from the CFO's domain but SPF and DMARC checks fail. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Check the service's authorized sending configuration and aligned authentication results.
  2. Compare header identity fields and investigate the reply-to domain.
  3. Narrow or remove the inappropriate spoof allow policy after evidence review.
  4. Examine sender authentication verdicts and spoof intelligence before taking action.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

SPF, DKIM and DMARC evidence helps assess address impersonation. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate domain spoofing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Validated sender configuration helps distinguish genuine delegation from impersonation. This addresses verify third-party mail identity; it does not directly satisfy investigate domain spoofing.

B:

Header examination reveals reply-path manipulation despite apparently familiar display names. Its intended use is to detect deceptive reply-to addresses, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate domain spoofing.

C:

Broad spoof exceptions can bypass intended authentication controls. That action focuses on remediate unsafe spoof allow entries rather than the specified need to investigate domain spoofing.


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