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Microsoft SC-200 Premium Bundle

SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 46

Question 450

A Purview DLP alert shows a large export of customer identifiers to an external destination. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Validate approved migration scope and classify the event with evidence.
  2. Review the DLP alert details, user activity, policy rule and content scope.
  3. Inspect the matched policy condition and sensitive information evidence.
  4. Correlate DLP activity history and escalate under the defined response policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

DLP investigation correlates matching policy conditions with the recorded data movement. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate possible sensitive-data exfiltration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DLP matches describe a policy violation or risk, not automatically the actor's intent. This addresses distinguish approved transfer from malicious exfiltration; it does not directly satisfy investigate possible sensitive-data exfiltration.

C:

Rule-level details identify the detection logic responsible for the incident. That action focuses on explain a Purview DLP policy match rather than the specified need to investigate possible sensitive-data exfiltration.

D:

Override patterns and repeated activity help assess misuse and policy-evasion risk. This addresses investigate repeated DLP override behavior; it does not directly satisfy investigate possible sensitive-data exfiltration.

Question 451

An identity shows repeated high-risk sign-ins and a new MFA registration from an unknown location. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Verify proxy network context and document the benign determination.
  2. Review sign-in outcome and token issuance before concluding access succeeded.
  3. Contain the account and investigate authentication method changes under the response runbook.
  4. Inspect sign-in risk details and correlated device, IP and user activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Risk plus unapproved authentication registration can indicate attacker persistence. This directly addresses the requirement to respond to suspicious MFA enrollment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Known network routing can create geolocation anomalies without credential theft. This addresses adjudicate legitimate sign-in anomalies; it does not directly satisfy respond to suspicious MFA enrollment.

B:

Blocked authentication attempts do not imply a valid session was created. Its intended use is to distinguish attempted from successful account access, whereas this case requires the analyst to respond to suspicious MFA enrollment.

D:

Risk evidence becomes actionable when linked to an affected account and observed activity. This addresses investigate likely compromised cloud sign-in; it does not directly satisfy respond to suspicious MFA enrollment.

Question 452

A domain controller records potential pass-the-ticket activity and responders need the related endpoint sequence. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Trace identity and device timelines backward to the first observed abnormal authentication.
  2. Inspect identity alert evidence, source machines and targeted accounts.
  3. Validate service-account baselines before classifying the pattern as attacker lateral movement.
  4. Correlate identity alerts with ticket activity and endpoint process timelines.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Kerberos and endpoint observations help reconstruct ticket-based credential abuse. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate suspicious Kerberos ticket reuse.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Chronological correlation helps identify the likely initial compromise. This addresses reconstruct lateral-movement origin; it does not directly satisfy investigate suspicious Kerberos ticket reuse.

B:

Authentication patterns across hosts can indicate lateral movement using stolen credentials. Its intended use is to investigate on-premises identity lateral movement, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate suspicious Kerberos ticket reuse.

C:

Known account behavior provides important false-positive context. That action focuses on distinguish normal privileged service authentication rather than the specified need to investigate suspicious Kerberos ticket reuse.

Question 453

A session policy is active but a native mobile client bypasses the browser-specific control. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Validate which client and app paths are supported by the session control.
  2. Apply an appropriate conditional access app control session policy.
  3. Review session activity evidence and apply targeted controls to the affected identities.
  4. Inspect the selected session policy action and scoped application conditions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Browser-proxy session enforcement has client and application limitations. This directly addresses the requirement to identify unsupported cloud session coverage.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Session controls can monitor or restrict supported in-session activities by risk and device context. Its intended use is to restrict unmanaged browser downloads, whereas this case requires the analyst to identify unsupported cloud session coverage.

C:

Targeted response uses observed activity rather than an unsupported assumption of tenant-wide abuse. That action focuses on contain one risky cloud session rather than the specified need to identify unsupported cloud session coverage.

D:

Access policies and in-session policies can govern different phases of cloud access. This addresses correct a misplaced session policy; it does not directly satisfy identify unsupported cloud session coverage.

Question 454

Security finds an attacker-created mailbox rule but needs to establish when and by whom it was added. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Revoke suspicious sessions and remediate account access after rule removal.
  2. Correlate Exchange mailbox audit events with Entra sign-ins and rule changes.
  3. Compare the current rule against documented change approvals and recipient history.
  4. Investigate and remove the unauthorized inbox or forwarding rule after evidence capture.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Mailbox and identity logs reconstruct rule creation and associated account access. This directly addresses the requirement to attribute a suspicious inbox rule.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing the rule alone does not close an active attacker session. This addresses contain mailbox compromise beyond the rule; it does not directly satisfy attribute a suspicious inbox rule.

C:

Change context separates routine routing from newly introduced suspicious destinations. That action focuses on identify unauthorized forwarding changes rather than the specified need to attribute a suspicious inbox rule.

D:

Malicious forwarding rules are a common persistence and data theft mechanism in compromised mailboxes. This addresses remove mailbox forwarding persistence; it does not directly satisfy attribute a suspicious inbox rule.

Question 455

A compromised cloud session continues after the user changes their password. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Tune documented trusted network context without broadly suppressing identity risk.
  2. Correlate sign-in and Defender for Cloud Apps activity for the same user and window.
  3. Revoke active sessions and tokens through supported identity controls.
  4. Review user identity context, device location, VPN use and sign-in risk evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Password change alone may not immediately invalidate an already active session. This directly addresses the requirement to contain ongoing cloud session hijack.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Network context can reduce benign geolocation anomalies while retaining suspicious cases. This addresses reduce VPN-driven travel false positives; it does not directly satisfy contain ongoing cloud session hijack.

B:

Time-aligned identity and application events connect authentication to potential data access. Its intended use is to identify post-login cloud data access, whereas this case requires the analyst to contain ongoing cloud session hijack.

D:

Travel anomalies can represent compromise or legitimate network routing artifacts. This addresses adjudicate an impossible-travel alert; it does not directly satisfy contain ongoing cloud session hijack.

Question 456

A confirmed compromised account's password was reset, but an attacker-controlled mailbox forwarding rule remains. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Preserve the attempted-sign-in evidence without asserting successful account compromise.
  2. Compare registration timestamp with the authorized recovery procedure before adjudicating.
  3. Investigate MFA-related sign-in logs and revoke affected sessions while securing methods.
  4. Remove unauthorized mail rules in addition to credential and session remediation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Persistence may survive a password reset when account configuration was changed. This directly addresses the requirement to eliminate cross-service account persistence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Failure-only authentication records support attempted intrusion, not proven access. This addresses evaluate blocked malicious login attempts; it does not directly satisfy eliminate cross-service account persistence.

B:

Contextual verification separates authorized security maintenance from persistence. Its intended use is to validate new privileged authentication methods, whereas this case requires the analyst to eliminate cross-service account persistence.

C:

MFA fatigue and unauthorized approvals can permit adversary session establishment. That action focuses on respond to compromised MFA challenge rather than the specified need to eliminate cross-service account persistence.

Question 457

A policy prompts access on managed devices but does not enforce the intended browser download restriction. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Inspect the selected session policy action and scoped application conditions.
  2. Validate which client and app paths are supported by the session control.
  3. Apply an appropriate conditional access app control session policy.
  4. Review session activity evidence and apply targeted controls to the affected identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Access policies and in-session policies can govern different phases of cloud access. This directly addresses the requirement to correct a misplaced session policy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Browser-proxy session enforcement has client and application limitations. Its intended use is to identify unsupported cloud session coverage, whereas this case requires the analyst to correct a misplaced session policy.

C:

Session controls can monitor or restrict supported in-session activities by risk and device context. That action focuses on restrict unmanaged browser downloads rather than the specified need to correct a misplaced session policy.

D:

Targeted response uses observed activity rather than an unsupported assumption of tenant-wide abuse. This addresses contain one risky cloud session; it does not directly satisfy correct a misplaced session policy.

Question 458

A legitimate roaming employee triggers repeated travel alerts due to a corporate VPN exit node. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Revoke active sessions and tokens through supported identity controls.
  2. Tune documented trusted network context without broadly suppressing identity risk.
  3. Correlate sign-in and Defender for Cloud Apps activity for the same user and window.
  4. Review user identity context, device location, VPN use and sign-in risk evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Network context can reduce benign geolocation anomalies while retaining suspicious cases. This directly addresses the requirement to reduce VPN-driven travel false positives.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Password change alone may not immediately invalidate an already active session. This addresses contain ongoing cloud session hijack; it does not directly satisfy reduce VPN-driven travel false positives.

C:

Time-aligned identity and application events connect authentication to potential data access. That action focuses on identify post-login cloud data access rather than the specified need to reduce VPN-driven travel false positives.

D:

Travel anomalies can represent compromise or legitimate network routing artifacts. This addresses adjudicate an impossible-travel alert; it does not directly satisfy reduce VPN-driven travel false positives.

Question 459

An insider risk case flags unusual bulk downloads after a resignation notice. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Correlate insider case activity with endpoint and identity security telemetry.
  2. Follow Purview role and privacy restrictions rather than granting broad user activity access.
  3. Review the insider risk alert with approved investigator role and case context.
  4. Evaluate approval records and document the false positive before escalation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Insider risk detections combine activity and contextual indicators subject to privacy controls. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate suspicious predeparture downloads.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Multi-source evidence strengthens attribution and impact assessment. This addresses correlate insider exfiltration signals; it does not directly satisfy investigate suspicious predeparture downloads.

B:

Insider investigations require designated roles and safeguards against unnecessary exposure. Its intended use is to protect sensitive insider investigation information, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate suspicious predeparture downloads.

D:

Contextual evidence prevents a benign business action being treated as malicious by default. This addresses adjudicate insider risk false positives; it does not directly satisfy investigate suspicious predeparture downloads.

Question 460

An attack triggers Sentinel alerts for brute force, privileged login, and firewall egress from the same entity. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Refine correlation using stronger identity or host indicators beyond the shared egress IP.
  2. Sort contributing alerts by event time and inspect initial detection evidence.
  3. Review each contributing alert separately before assigning an overall verdict.
  4. Correlate common account, host and IP entities into a multistage incident timeline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Shared entities and chronological phases can identify one connected intrusion. This directly addresses the requirement to link multistage Sentinel alert evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared infrastructure addresses are weak unique identifiers for incident grouping. This addresses avoid false correlation via shared proxies; it does not directly satisfy link multistage Sentinel alert evidence.

B:

Earliest observed activity and initial alert creation are different milestones worth distinguishing. Its intended use is to establish the incident's first detection, whereas this case requires the analyst to link multistage Sentinel alert evidence.

C:

Correlated incident status should not erase distinct alert evidence. That action focuses on adjudicate mixed-quality incident alerts rather than the specified need to link multistage Sentinel alert evidence.


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