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CompTIA CAS-005 Practice Test 31

Question 300

A privileged break-glass account has never been used in a tested recovery exercise. Which control or decision MOST directly resolves the stated gap?

  1. Invalidate cached entitlements and verify effective access revocation.
  2. Use just-in-time elevation with approval, expiry and audit.
  3. Assign scoped identities and rotate secrets from a managed vault.
  4. Test controlled emergency sign-in and record independent monitoring.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Emergency readiness requires verified access under outage conditions. The controlling fact is: A privileged break-glass account has never been used in a tested recovery exercise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Test controlled emergency sign-in and record independent monitoring.

B:

The current facts call for this action: test controlled emergency sign-in and record independent monitoring.

C:

Shared long-lived credentials magnify compromise impact. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a service account uses the same password across a fleet and has no rotation ownership. The proper immediate action is to test controlled emergency sign-in and record independent monitoring.

Question 301

An enterprise deploys facial biometrics without a fallback for users whose characteristics are unreadable. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Use accessible alternative factors with equivalent assurance and safeguards.
  2. Revalidate identity proofing and audit the authenticator enrollment.
  3. Bind 802.1X/EAP authorization to managed device identity and access policy.
  4. Correct certificate trust and EAP server/client identity validation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Biometrics are not infallible or universally usable. The controlling fact is: An enterprise deploys facial biometrics without a fallback for users whose characteristics are unreadable.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: use accessible alternative factors with equivalent assurance and safeguards.

C:

Link encryption alone does not establish device eligibility. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a wireless network uses WPA3 but allows an unverified corporate device to join a privileged VLAN. The proper immediate action is to use accessible alternative factors with equivalent assurance and safeguards.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Use accessible alternative factors with equivalent assurance and safeguards.

Question 302

A conditional access policy mistakenly trusts a user-supplied geographic header. Which control or decision MOST directly resolves the stated gap?

  1. Preserve method claims and policy evaluation evidence for review.
  2. Use trusted identity provider and network signals in conditions.
  3. Apply continuous access evaluation or revoke relevant sessions and tokens.
  4. Check policy conditions and enforce resource-specific authentication strength.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Authorization cannot rely on unauthenticated request metadata. The controlling fact is: A conditional access policy mistakenly trusts a user-supplied geographic header.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Preserving method claims and policy evaluation evidence for review would not meet the need for trusted identity provider and network signals in conditions. Authorization cannot rely on unauthenticated request metadata.

C:

Authentication risk must be reflected in active access. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: an identity risk engine marks an account compromised but legacy app sessions persist. The proper immediate action is to use trusted identity provider and network signals in conditions.

D:

Checking policy conditions and enforcing resource-specific authentication strength would not meet the need for trusted identity provider and network signals in conditions.

Question 303

A mobile app exposes its long-lived client secret in publicly distributed code. What is the appropriate security response for this scenario?

  1. Validate issuer, token audience, signature and scope before authorization.
  2. Reduce delegated permissions and review consent authorization.
  3. Treat the app as a public client and use a suitable PKCE-based flow.
  4. Revoke tokens and enforce sign-in state in the relying service.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Secrets embedded in distributed clients cannot remain confidential. The controlling fact is: A mobile app exposes its long-lived client secret in publicly distributed code.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Validating issuer, token audience, signature and scoping would not address the need for treat the app as a public client and use a suitable PKCE-based flow.

B:

The current facts call for this action: treat the app as a public client and use a suitable PKCE-based flow.

D:

Revoking tokens and enforcing sign-in state in the relying service would not address the need for treat the app as a public client and use a suitable PKCE-based flow.

Question 304

A platform role is removed from a user but policy caches still issue grants. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Assign scoped identities and rotate secrets from a managed vault.
  2. Use just-in-time elevation with approval, expiry and audit.
  3. Test controlled emergency sign-in and record independent monitoring.
  4. Invalidate cached entitlements and verify effective access revocation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Lifecycle controls must remove residual privileges. The controlling fact is: A platform role is removed from a user but policy caches still issue grants.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Invalidate cached entitlements and verify effective access revocation.

B:

The current facts call for this action: invalidate cached entitlements and verify effective access revocation.

C:

Emergency readiness requires verified access under outage conditions. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a privileged break-glass account has never been used in a tested recovery exercise. The proper immediate action is to invalidate cached entitlements and verify effective access revocation.

Question 305

A service account suddenly requests tickets for many unrelated resources. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Investigate the requesting host, ticket types and approved service behavior.
  2. Resolve the duplicate SPN and validate the intended service binding.
  3. Restore time synchronization before resetting valid account passwords.
  4. Protect ticket caches and constrain service account access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Unusual Kerberos patterns require contextual validation. The controlling fact is: A service account suddenly requests tickets for many unrelated resources.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: investigate the requesting host, ticket types and approved service behavior.

C:

Kerberos tickets depend on reasonably synchronized clocks. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: kerberos authentication fails after a server clock drifts beyond tolerance. The proper immediate action is to investigate the requesting host, ticket types and approved service behavior.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Investigate the requesting host, ticket types and approved service behavior.

Question 306

Several partner identities appear as one application user because subject claims are reused. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Reject the response and repair nonce binding in the client flow.
  2. Fix unique subject mapping and validate identity association.
  3. Correct the relying-party audience configuration and verify intended recipient.
  4. Update trusted signing certificates through approved metadata rollover.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Incorrect subject mapping can merge users and entitlements. The controlling fact is: Several partner identities appear as one application user because subject claims are reused.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rejecting the response and repairing nonce binding in the client flow would not fix unique subject mapping and validate identity association.

C:

A valid signature does not make a token valid for another audience. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: sAML assertions are validly signed but rejected because an app expects a different audience URI. The proper immediate action is to fix unique subject mapping and validate identity association.

D:

Updating trusted signing certificates through approved metadata rollover would not fix unique subject mapping and validate identity association.

Question 307

A signed operating system tool installs a hidden scheduled task after a document is opened. What is the appropriate security response for this scenario?

  1. Preserve off-host events and investigate policy change attribution.
  2. Correlate service-control and authentication events with source hosts.
  3. Review parent process, arguments, task creation and remote links.
  4. Correlate behavior and process lineage rather than filenames alone.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Trusted binaries can be used for persistence. The controlling fact is: A signed operating system tool installs a hidden scheduled task after a document is opened.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Preserving off-host events and investigating policy change attribution would not review parent process, arguments, task creation and remote links.

B:

The current facts call for this action: review parent process, arguments, task creation and remote links.

D:

Correlating behavior and process lineage rather than filenames alone would not review parent process, arguments, task creation and remote links.

Question 308

Many endpoints lose EDR heartbeat immediately after an administrator pushes a new policy. What should the enterprise security architect or analyst do NEXT?

  1. Preserve source timestamps and prevent ingestion-time distortion.
  2. Enable appropriate EDR telemetry and retention for process relationships.
  3. Verify isolation controls across all interfaces and paths.
  4. Correlate agent health, management changes and network reachability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Central misconfiguration can mimic adversary tampering. The controlling fact is: Many endpoints lose EDR heartbeat immediately after an administrator pushes a new policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The reported condition calls for this action: Correlate agent health, management changes and network reachability.

B:

The current facts call for this action: correlate agent health, management changes and network reachability.

C:

Containment must be measured at the protected boundary. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a quarantined endpoint continues sending malicious traffic from a second network interface. The proper immediate action is to correlate agent health, management changes and network reachability.

Question 309

A signed application is approved but a newly added plugin executes from user-writable storage. Which action is MOST defensible given these facts?

  1. Constrain execution by publisher, path integrity and approved plugin identity.
  2. Compare process parameters and approved task records before containment.
  3. Correlate EDR process trees and prevention outcomes before declaring execution.
  4. Constrain script execution and monitor interpreters and descendants.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Signing of one executable does not trust every loaded module. The controlling fact is: A signed application is approved but a newly added plugin executes from user-writable storage.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The current facts call for this action: constrain execution by publisher, path integrity and approved plugin identity.

C:

Detection alerts are not proof of successful launch. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: malware is blocked by antivirus but endpoint logs cannot show whether any child process started. The proper immediate action is to constrain execution by publisher, path integrity and approved plugin identity.

D:

The reported condition calls for this action: Constrain execution by publisher, path integrity and approved plugin identity.

Question 310

Users access unknown file-sharing sites from devices with unrestricted browser downloads. Which action is the BEST response to the security requirement?

  1. Apply managed application data boundaries and DLP policies.
  2. Use browser isolation or controlled content detonation for untrusted sites.
  3. Disable persistent sessions and clear identity state between users.
  4. Restore enrollment and enforce a minimum supported OS posture.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Web threats can be contained away from the local endpoint. The controlling fact is: Users access unknown file-sharing sites from devices with unrestricted browser downloads.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Applying managed application data boundaries and DLP policies would not meet the need for browser isolation or controlled content detonation for untrusted sites.

C:

Shared endpoints require deliberate session lifecycle controls. The scenario does not present the alternate condition: a kiosk browser automatically preserves credentials between anonymous visitors. The proper immediate action is to use browser isolation or controlled content detonation for untrusted sites.

D:

Restoring enrollment and enforcing a minimum supported OS posture would not meet the need for browser isolation or controlled content detonation for untrusted sites.


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