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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Premium File: 306 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 12, 2026

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Training Course: 223 Video Lectures

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 PDF Study Guide: 411 Pages

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Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 24

Question 230

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: A central inspection architecture must discard traffic to a prohibited CIDR even if a broad propagated route exists. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Review the service quotas and redesign attachment or route aggregation before onboarding more VPCs.
  2. Add approved VPC routes toward the Transit Gateway and appropriate TGW return routes.
  3. Create a VPC peering connection and configure both VPC route tables and security controls.
  4. Add an approved blackhole route for the prohibited destination in the affected route table.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A targeted blackhole route prevents forwarding to otherwise reachable next hops for its matching destination. Confirm the change by checking that traffic to the prohibited prefix is dropped while permitted destinations remain reachable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Central hubs still have finite limits; simply adding spokes cannot exceed those boundaries safely. The needed control instead targets Transit Gateway blackhole routes can explicitly drop traffic for selected destination prefixes; it succeeds when traffic to the prohibited prefix is dropped while permitted destinations remain reachable.

B:

An attached gateway cannot redirect VPC packets that lack a subnet route targeting the attachment. The needed control instead targets Transit Gateway blackhole routes can explicitly drop traffic for selected destination prefixes; it succeeds when traffic to the prohibited prefix is dropped while permitted destinations remain reachable.

C:

Each peer must route the remote CIDR explicitly; peering does not act as a universal router. It does not directly achieve the required result: traffic to the prohibited prefix is dropped while permitted destinations remain reachable. The constraint is that a targeted blackhole route prevents forwarding to otherwise reachable next hops for its matching destination.

Question 231

In an AWS networking assessment, a compliance review requires geographic limits on which countries may reach content distributed over a CDN. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. A CloudFront origin request policy determines which headers, cookies, and query strings reach the origin.
  2. Origin access control limits direct S3 access while authorizing the specific CloudFront distribution.
  3. Global Accelerator source-IP client affinity hashes connections by source and destination addresses.
  4. CloudFront geographic restrictions can permit or deny viewers based on location, subject to service limitations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Geo restriction enforcement is an edge access control and does not replace application authorization or identity checks. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that test access from excluded locations receives the intended denial while allowed viewers can load assets.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Origin request attributes can be controlled separately from which request fields form the cache key. For the stated conditions, geo restriction enforcement is an edge access control and does not replace application authorization or identity checks. The more specific mechanism is CloudFront geographic restrictions can permit or deny viewers based on location, subject to service limitations.

B:

A private S3 origin prevents viewers bypassing edge controls through an unrestricted bucket endpoint. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; geo restriction enforcement is an edge access control and does not replace application authorization or identity checks.

C:

Five-tuple flow hashing may send different source ports to different endpoints, unlike source-IP affinity. For the stated conditions, geo restriction enforcement is an edge access control and does not replace application authorization or identity checks. The more specific mechanism is CloudFront geographic restrictions can permit or deny viewers based on location, subject to service limitations.

Question 232

In an AWS networking assessment, a Direct Connect path supports jumbo frames but the on-premises router still uses a 1500-byte interface MTU. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Jumbo frame benefits require consistent supported MTU across relevant end-to-end devices and links.
  2. Global Accelerator uses edge entry points and regional endpoint health to optimize transport paths.
  3. Enhanced networking with ENA can improve packet performance on supported instance types.
  4. Cloud WAN can centralize global network segment policy and attachment governance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A large AWS frame cannot traverse a lower-MTU intermediate segment without compatible handling. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that large test frames traverse the approved path without fragmentation-related loss.

Incorrect Answers

B:

GA improves network path selection without depending on caching HTTP objects at edge servers. The reported evidence instead concerns jumbo frame benefits require consistent supported MTU across relevant end-to-end devices and links: a large AWS frame cannot traverse a lower-MTU intermediate segment without compatible handling.

C:

Enhanced networking reduces virtualization overhead when the instance and driver support the feature. The decisive technical distinction is jumbo frame benefits require consistent supported MTU across relevant end-to-end devices and links; a large AWS frame cannot traverse a lower-MTU intermediate segment without compatible handling.

D:

Central segment policy can simplify management at scale compared with many unrelated regional route tables. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; a large AWS frame cannot traverse a lower-MTU intermediate segment without compatible handling.

Question 233

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: On-premises routers advertise conflicting equal CIDR prefixes through two VPNs, and traffic oscillates during BGP updates. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Align route preferences and withdraw duplicate unintended advertisements on the customer routers.
  2. Remove the stale static target and route to the approved replacement attachment.
  3. Compare before/after neighbor advertisements and revise summarization with the corporate routing team.
  4. Reapply approved TGW route-table association and propagation to the replacement attachment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Competing identical prefixes with unstable attributes can produce repeated forwarding changes. Confirm the change by checking that the route table selects one intended stable path and application traffic stops oscillating.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A route-table entry is not proof the next-hop attachment remains operational. The needed control instead targets BGP path selection requires stable attributes and consistent route advertisement policy to avoid churn; it succeeds when the route table selects one intended stable path and application traffic stops oscillating.

C:

Coarse summarization can hide reachability differences and route withdrawals from downstream peers. In this situation, competing identical prefixes with unstable attributes can produce repeated forwarding changes. The proposed change does not ensure the route table selects one intended stable path and application traffic stops oscillating.

D:

A new attachment ID is not automatically equivalent to an old one for route visibility. In this situation, competing identical prefixes with unstable attributes can produce repeated forwarding changes. The proposed change does not ensure the route table selects one intended stable path and application traffic stops oscillating.

Question 234

In an AWS networking assessment, a VPC's route-table association moves to a restricted TGW table and shared DNS becomes unreachable. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Hybrid PrivateLink consumers need correct private DNS forwarding and routes to the endpoint ENI.
  2. Inter-Region TGW peering needs matching explicit static routes toward the peer attachment.
  3. Attachment association changes the available routes for packets originating through that attachment.
  4. Cloud WAN core network policy changes must reach active execution state across associated regions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A TGW attachment can be connected yet lack a path under its new routing-domain membership. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that private DNS endpoint queries again traverse an authorized transit route.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Endpoint availability in one VPC does not automatically change corporate DNS resolution for the service. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; a TGW attachment can be connected yet lack a path under its new routing-domain membership.

B:

Peer connection state does not automatically propagate remote VPC CIDR changes. The reported evidence instead concerns attachment association changes the available routes for packets originating through that attachment: a TGW attachment can be connected yet lack a path under its new routing-domain membership.

D:

Policy publication and fully converged regional routing are different lifecycle milestones. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; a TGW attachment can be connected yet lack a path under its new routing-domain membership.

Question 235

In an AWS networking assessment, a team notices that manual edits to a VPC security group differ from the CloudFormation template that originally created it. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. AWS CDK synthesizes application code into CloudFormation-based infrastructure definitions.
  2. EventBridge can route supported CloudTrail management events to a policy review target.
  3. CloudFormation drift detection identifies supported out-of-band configuration differences.
  4. CloudFormation Guard or policy-as-code checks can reject disallowed network resource configurations before deployment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A deployed template cannot guarantee continued agreement after direct console mutations. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that the stack's supported resources return to expected configuration after controlled reconciliation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CDK is an authoring layer, not a replacement for CloudFormation's deployed resource lifecycle. The decisive technical distinction is cloudFormation drift detection identifies supported out-of-band configuration differences; a deployed template cannot guarantee continued agreement after direct console mutations.

B:

Event-driven notifications observe resource modifications instead of waiting for scheduled inventory scans. The reported evidence instead concerns cloudFormation drift detection identifies supported out-of-band configuration differences: a deployed template cannot guarantee continued agreement after direct console mutations.

D:

IaC syntax validity does not establish compliance with organizational network policy. The decisive technical distinction is cloudFormation drift detection identifies supported out-of-band configuration differences; a deployed template cannot guarantee continued agreement after direct console mutations.

Question 236

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: A new resolver rule appears to break private DNS and the team needs timestamps and queried names from specific VPCs. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Create relevant CloudWatch dashboards, metrics, and alarms with appropriate evaluation periods.
  2. Associate Resolver query logging with the relevant VPCs and send logs to secured storage.
  3. Enable appropriate CloudFront standard logging and analyze response and URI fields.
  4. Configure Transit Gateway Flow Logs and collect fields relevant to attachment traffic analysis.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Query logging reveals requested names and resolver behavior rather than full application HTTP transactions. Confirm the change by checking that the suspect DNS names and timestamps appear in centralized resolver query records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Network incident diagnosis requires time correlation, not a single point-in-time traffic count. The needed control instead targets Route 53 Resolver query logs capture DNS queries from VPC resolvers under configured associations; it succeeds when the suspect DNS names and timestamps appear in centralized resolver query records.

C:

CDN access logs can distinguish edge-visible request patterns from only origin server events. That adjustment does not address the controlling condition: query logging reveals requested names and resolver behavior rather than full application HTTP transactions. Verify the suspect DNS names and timestamps appear in centralized resolver query records.

D:

Central transit metadata complements VPC ENI flow records when multiple VPCs share a hub. The needed control instead targets Route 53 Resolver query logs capture DNS queries from VPC resolvers under configured associations; it succeeds when the suspect DNS names and timestamps appear in centralized resolver query records.

Question 237

In an AWS networking assessment, an on-premises network overlaps with the default CIDR of a newly created development VPC. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. IPv4 private-subnet internet egress requires a valid NAT route and functioning upstream gateway.
  2. VPC subnet route tables independently choose the next hop for spoke-to-spoke traffic.
  3. Private network overlap creates ambiguous route destinations across hybrid and peered networks.
  4. VPC peering requires routes for the remote CIDR in the participating VPC subnet tables.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Full routed connectivity cannot uniquely identify two networks advertising identical address ranges. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that the final address plan has no conflicting private destination prefixes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A private instance cannot use an Internet Gateway directly without public address and appropriate routing. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; full routed connectivity cannot uniquely identify two networks advertising identical address ranges.

B:

An attached TGW does not automatically redirect packets that a VPC subnet table sends elsewhere. The reported evidence instead concerns private network overlap creates ambiguous route destinations across hybrid and peered networks: full routed connectivity cannot uniquely identify two networks advertising identical address ranges.

D:

Unidirectional route configuration can lead to failed return traffic even when peering is active. The reported evidence instead concerns private network overlap creates ambiguous route destinations across hybrid and peered networks: full routed connectivity cannot uniquely identify two networks advertising identical address ranges.

Question 238

In an AWS networking assessment, a database security group allows traffic from a broad VPC CIDR and a team wants tighter access despite shared IP space. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Network ACL rules are evaluated in ascending rule-number order with first-match handling.
  2. Security-group referencing can grant access to only explicitly authorized application groups.
  3. Interface endpoint ENI security groups can restrict client traffic to specific approved sources.
  4. NACL explicit deny entries can take precedence based on ascending rule-number evaluation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Subnet membership alone is weaker identity than authorized workload security-group membership. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that only approved application instances can reach the database while other VPC instances cannot.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A broad earlier deny can supersede a later allow despite permissive security groups. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; subnet membership alone is weaker identity than authorized workload security-group membership.

C:

Endpoint private addressing does not automatically enforce least-privilege client access. The reported evidence instead concerns security-group referencing can grant access to only explicitly authorized application groups: subnet membership alone is weaker identity than authorized workload security-group membership.

D:

Security groups lack explicit deny rules while NACL rule-order processing can enforce a scoped subnet deny. For the stated conditions, subnet membership alone is weaker identity than authorized workload security-group membership. The more specific mechanism is security-group referencing can grant access to only explicitly authorized application groups.

Question 239

In an AWS networking assessment, a service has both IPv4 and IPv6 users, but the public DNS zone contains only an A record. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Split-horizon DNS can use a public hosted zone and an associated private hosted zone for the same namespace.
  2. Resolver inbound queries use DNS context of the endpoint VPC and its associated private zones.
  3. Route 53 health-aware failover requires a routing policy and health checks that participate in record selection.
  4. An AAAA DNS record publishes an IPv6 address independently of an IPv4 A record.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

IPv6-only clients cannot infer an IPv6 destination from an A record carrying only IPv4 addresses. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that IPv6 client DNS queries receive supported AAAA responses and can connect successfully.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VPC Resolver may use associated private records while public internet resolvers use the public delegation. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; iPv6-only clients cannot infer an IPv6 destination from an A record carrying only IPv4 addresses.

B:

Inbound endpoint existence does not grant resolution of private zones absent from its resolver view. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; iPv6-only clients cannot infer an IPv6 destination from an A record carrying only IPv4 addresses.

C:

Simple routing alone does not make Route 53 suppress failed records based on application health. The reported evidence instead concerns an AAAA DNS record publishes an IPv6 address independently of an IPv4 A record: iPv6-only clients cannot infer an IPv6 destination from an A record carrying only IPv4 addresses.

Question 240

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: A DNS query log contains repeated NXDOMAIN responses for an internal host that was recently renamed. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Correlate the flow with source and destination security groups, NACLs and Reachability Analyzer.
  2. Trace backend response time and timeout settings alongside application dependencies.
  3. Inspect the relevant private hosted zone or corporate DNS record for the renamed host.
  4. Correlate CloudWatch NetworkOut with relevant VPC Flow Logs or packet telemetry.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Changing packet routing cannot create a DNS record that does not exist in the queried zone. Confirm the change by checking that the intended name returns the correct A or AAAA record after DNS data repair.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The packet is blocked before the HTTP service can evaluate credentials or cookies. The needed control instead targets repeated NXDOMAIN answers indicate a missing matching name in the resolver's authoritative view; it succeeds when the intended name returns the correct A or AAAA record after DNS data repair.

B:

Load-balancer target timing and application processing can exceed idle or response timeout limits. It does not directly achieve the required result: the intended name returns the correct A or AAAA record after DNS data repair. The constraint is that changing packet routing cannot create a DNS record that does not exist in the queried zone.

D:

Interface byte totals measure volume while flow records attribute traffic to IPs and ports. In this situation, changing packet routing cannot create a DNS record that does not exist in the queried zone. The proposed change does not ensure the intended name returns the correct A or AAAA record after DNS data repair.


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