ServiceNow CIS-FSM Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

When a local bank dispatches technicians to fix its ATMs after an issue has occurred, what type of field service is being used?

A. Reactive field service
B. Internal field service
C. External field service
D. Predictive field service

Answer: A

Explanation:

The concept of field service revolves around providing maintenance or technical support at locations away from the organization’s primary base, often directly at the customer’s site. The way this service is delivered can fall under different models, such as reactive, planned, or predictive. In the case of a bank servicing its Automated Teller Machines (ATMs), the most fitting classification is reactive field service.

Reactive field service refers to a model where technicians respond to issues after they have occurred. This often includes emergency repairs, troubleshooting system failures, or addressing equipment malfunctions. Banks typically discover problems with their ATMs through user reports or system alerts, prompting a service technician to be dispatched. This form of service is characterized by its on-demand nature, triggered by an immediate need rather than scheduled maintenance.

Let’s briefly explore the other options. Internal field service refers to work done within the organization, such as maintaining office computers or in-house systems. ATM servicing, however, is conducted externally at customer-facing locations, disqualifying this option.

External field service is a broader term that simply means service conducted outside the organization’s physical premises. While ATM maintenance does qualify as external work, this answer doesn’t address the core nature of the timing—reacting to problems after they occur. Hence, it's too generic.

Predictive field service, on the other hand, involves using advanced monitoring tools and data analytics to detect potential failures before they happen. It relies on forecasts and trends to perform maintenance proactively, rather than in response to actual issues. Since ATM servicing in this context is not data-driven or pre-emptive, this model does not apply.

Therefore, the best fit is reactive field service, where maintenance and repair occur after an issue is detected. This model is commonly used for devices like ATMs that experience spontaneous or customer-reported problems.

Question 2:

Which field service approach involves performing maintenance activities at consistent, scheduled intervals?

A. Predictive
B. Project
C. Reactive
D. Planned

Answer: D

Explanation:

Field service models organize how maintenance and repair work are managed and delivered. Each model suits different operational strategies and goals. The question asks which model uses fixed, regular intervals to conduct maintenance tasks.

The planned service model is designed specifically for scheduled, repetitive maintenance. Under this approach, maintenance activities are prearranged and occur at set timeframes—such as weekly, monthly, quarterly, or yearly. This regular schedule aims to keep equipment running efficiently by preventing breakdowns through consistent upkeep. Planned maintenance is widely used to maximize asset lifespan, reduce unexpected failures, and ensure reliability.

By contrast, predictive service relies on real-time data and analytics to anticipate when maintenance is required. Instead of fixed intervals, maintenance happens only when monitoring tools indicate the likelihood of failure or performance degradation. While highly efficient, predictive maintenance is condition-driven and does not involve regular scheduling regardless of equipment status.

The project model applies to unique, one-time service activities like installations, upgrades, or large-scale overhauls. These are planned but do not occur repeatedly at regular intervals. Projects focus on achieving specific objectives rather than routine upkeep.

Reactive maintenance is the opposite of planned maintenance—it occurs only after a failure or problem has been detected. Reactive services address unexpected issues on an as-needed basis, rather than following a timetable.

Therefore, for maintenance tasks performed on a consistent schedule to prevent failure, the planned model is the correct answer. It provides a systematic approach to maintaining equipment health by ensuring tasks are completed regularly before problems arise.

Question 3:

At which stage must a work order request be in to allow setting task dependencies within it?

A. Draft
B. Approved
C. Qualified
D. Waiting Approval
E. Awaiting Qualification

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In work order management systems such as ServiceNow, each work order progresses through a defined lifecycle consisting of multiple states. One crucial capability during the early phase of a work order’s lifecycle is the ability to set dependencies between tasks. This ensures that tasks are executed in a proper sequence, where some tasks are contingent upon the completion of others.

The Draft state is the initial state in which a work order is still being developed and is open to modification. At this point, administrators or process owners have the flexibility to define the structure and workflow of the work order, including setting task dependencies. Making these changes at this early stage is essential, as it allows planners to structure execution accurately before the order moves forward to more rigid stages.

Examining the other options:

• Approved: Once a work order is approved, it typically signals that the planning is finalized and ready for implementation. Most changes, including adjusting dependencies, are usually restricted or discouraged at this point to maintain process integrity.

• Qualified: This state indicates that the work order has met specific criteria for execution. However, changes to its structure—like adding or modifying task dependencies—are generally expected to be completed prior to qualification.

• Waiting Approval: In this phase, the work order is pending approval and should not be altered. Dependencies should already be in place before reaching this stage.

• Awaiting Qualification: Similar to the Qualified state, this implies that the work order is under review for readiness. It's not the appropriate point to introduce or change dependencies.

Therefore, the Draft state is the correct stage for configuring task dependencies. This is when the work order is still being planned and flexible enough to accommodate necessary adjustments. Once it progresses beyond this stage, structural changes like task relationships become restricted or may require re-submission.

Question 4:

Which tool is used by administrators in ServiceNow to design and assign questionnaires for work orders and their associated tasks?

A. Process Automation Designer
B. Targeted Communication
C. Survey Designer
D. Assessment Designer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, questionnaires are often used to collect structured input or evaluations related to work orders and work order tasks. These questionnaires are typically created using the Assessment Designer, a purpose-built tool that allows administrators to develop assessments tailored to different service management scenarios.

The Assessment Designer enables users to define custom sets of questions, scoring methodologies, and conditional logic. These assessments can be linked directly to work orders or their individual tasks to gather important data during or after task execution. For example, technicians might complete an assessment to report findings or verify task outcomes, while managers may use them to evaluate performance or quality. The ability to create context-specific questionnaires makes Assessment Designer highly effective in work management use cases.

Now, let’s analyze the incorrect options:

• Process Automation Designer is a tool used for orchestrating workflows, automating tasks, and defining business process flows. It’s not designed for building or managing questionnaires. Its primary use is process design, not data collection.

• Targeted Communication focuses on sending messages to selected users or groups. While it can be used in combination with assessments (e.g., to notify users to complete them), it does not provide functionality to build questionnaires.

• Survey Designer allows the creation of surveys used for broader data collection—typically customer satisfaction or general feedback. Although similar in structure to assessments, surveys are less targeted and lack the deeper integration with task-level work that assessments offer.

In summary, the Assessment Designer is the correct tool for this task. It is explicitly designed to support detailed and customizable questionnaires that integrate seamlessly into the work order and task processes. Its capabilities allow organizations to gather relevant data for evaluation, quality control, and service improvement directly within their operational workflows.

Question 5:

Which two elements are combined to compute the Alert Priority score in an alert management system?

A. The alert’s category and its relative weight
B. The alert’s category and its Priority Group
C. The alert’s Severity and its Priority Group
D. The alert’s Severity and its relative weight

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The Alert Priority score is a calculated value that helps systems prioritize alerts based on urgency and importance. Two critical components are used to determine this score: Severity and relative weight.

Severity reflects how critical an alert is. For example, an alert signaling a system outage will have a higher severity than one reporting a performance slowdown. It indicates the level of impact or urgency associated with the alert.

Relative weight, on the other hand, determines how much emphasis the system places on specific types of alerts. This value is often configured based on organizational priorities, business context, or system configuration rules. It enables differentiation between alerts of equal severity by factoring in their business or operational relevance.

By combining these two values, the system arrives at an Alert Priority score that balances raw criticality (severity) with contextual importance (relative weight). This approach allows the system to better triage issues, ensuring that not only the most severe but also the most impactful alerts are addressed first.

Now let’s evaluate the other options:

• A: While the alert’s category may describe the nature of the alert, it does not factor directly into calculating the priority score.

• B: The Priority Group is more about how alerts are grouped and managed, not how priority scores are calculated.

• C: Severity is a valid factor, but Priority Group is not typically used to compute the priority score.

Thus, the Alert Priority score is most accurately determined by combining the Severity and relative weight of an alert, making D the correct choice.

Question 6:

In an alert management system, which attribute is primarily used to detect and prevent duplicate alerts?

A. Metric_name
B. Message_key
C. Short_description
D. Additional_info

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

De-duplication is an essential process in incident and alert management systems. It ensures that repeated or identical alerts do not clutter dashboards, overload teams, or create false urgency. The attribute primarily responsible for this process is the message_key.

The message_key serves as a unique identifier that allows the system to determine whether a specific alert or message has already been received. When a new alert arrives, the system checks its message_key against previously logged alerts. If a match is found, the system concludes that it’s a duplicate and suppresses the alert, preventing unnecessary actions or confusion.

Now, let’s evaluate the incorrect options:

• A (Metric_name): This identifies the type of metric being monitored, such as CPU usage or memory consumption. While useful for organizing alerts, it is not unique enough to reliably filter out duplicates.

• C (Short_description): This typically provides a brief summary of the issue. However, multiple alerts may share the same description, especially in recurring events, making it unreliable for de-duplication.

• D (Additional_info): This field contains extra contextual data such as logs or event metadata. While helpful for investigation, it’s not used as a unique identifier and is not suitable for suppressing duplicates.

The message_key, in contrast, is specifically designed for this purpose. It contains a combination of event attributes that make the alert unique, such as source, timestamp, and event type. This enables the system to identify repeats and maintain a clean, actionable list of alerts.

Therefore, the correct answer is B, as the message_key is the most reliable attribute for managing de-duplication.

Question 7:

Which user role is primarily responsible for adding personal events to an agent's calendar in a workforce management system?

A. wm_manager
B. wm_agent
C. wm_dispatcher
D. wm_admin

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In workforce management systems, roles define the scope of user responsibilities and permissions. When it comes to managing personal events on a calendar—such as scheduling time off, noting availability, or adding non-work-related tasks—the wm_agent role is the most appropriate. This role typically represents the individual agents who carry out the day-to-day operations and manage their own work schedules.

Agents often need the ability to personalize their calendars to reflect availability for assignments, breaks, meetings, or personal appointments. The wm_agent role provides these users with the necessary permissions to create, update, or delete events on their personal calendars without impacting the broader system configuration or team schedules.

Let’s explore why the other options are incorrect:

• A. wm_manager: This role usually oversees agent performance, workflow, and task distribution. While managers may have visibility into agent schedules for planning purposes, they are not typically involved in creating personal calendar events for each agent.

• C. wm_dispatcher: This role is primarily responsible for assigning tasks and managing work queues. Dispatchers may influence when agents are scheduled for work, but they don't handle personal calendar items like breaks or personal appointments.

• D. wm_admin: This role typically refers to system administrators who manage configurations, access control, and system-wide settings. Although admins can assign roles and adjust permissions, they don't normally interact with individual agent schedules at the event-creation level.

The design of workforce systems ensures that personal calendar control lies with the agent for autonomy and clarity. Therefore, the wm_agent role is designated for this function, making B the correct answer.

Question 8:

When choosing dispatch groups for a work order task, which factor is used to filter the list of available groups?

A. Based on the assigned manager
B. Based on the area the group covers
C. Based on the group’s category or type
D. Based on the members within the group

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In work order and field service management, dispatch groups are collections of individuals or resources organized to handle specific types of tasks. When a work order task is generated, the system needs to determine which dispatch groups are eligible to take on the assignment. This is commonly achieved by filtering dispatch groups based on their location coverage.

Location coverage refers to the geographic area or service zone that a dispatch group is assigned to support. By filtering dispatch groups by location, the system ensures that the group selected is physically capable of servicing the task’s location. This makes operational sense, as it reduces travel time, ensures faster response, and increases the likelihood of successful task completion.

Let’s evaluate why the other options are less suitable:

• A. Based on the assigned manager: While managers may supervise dispatch groups, filtering groups solely by the manager is not practical for task assignment. Multiple groups may report to the same manager but operate in different geographic zones.

• C. Based on the group’s category or type: Group types (e.g., emergency, maintenance, inspection) describe the functional purpose of the group, not their physical service area. While relevant to task compatibility, this is not the primary filter when selecting a dispatch group for a location-specific work order.

• D. Based on the members within the group: While the availability and skillsets of group members are important during task assignment, initial filtering is done at the group level based on service area. Member details are typically considered after the group is selected.

In summary, filtering dispatch groups by location coverage is the most logical and commonly used method. It ensures tasks are only offered to groups capable of physically servicing the area, making B the correct and most efficient answer.

Question 9:

Which map interface should dispatchers use to view the live locations of field agents?

A. Agent map
B. My task map
C. Manager map
D. Dispatch map

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When dispatchers need to monitor the real-time locations of agents in the field, the most appropriate tool for this task is the Dispatch map. This feature is designed specifically to support dispatch operations by offering live, dynamic tracking of agents on duty.

Dispatch map provides a comprehensive and up-to-date visual display showing the positions of agents as they move between jobs or remain stationed at service locations. This real-time visibility is crucial for dispatchers to make timely and informed decisions regarding work order assignments, task rescheduling, and rapid incident response. By seeing where agents are physically located at any given moment, dispatchers can efficiently allocate resources, minimize travel time, and balance workloads across available field staff.

Let’s evaluate the other options to understand why they are less suitable:

• Agent map may seem like a logical option based on its name, but in many field service systems, it focuses more on displaying agent profiles, availability, or work preferences rather than showing live geographic tracking. It lacks the real-time, map-based overview that dispatchers need.

• My task map is typically a user-specific interface, designed to show tasks assigned to a particular individual, often the user logged into the system. While it may indicate task locations, it doesn’t provide a global view of all agent movements or offer dispatch-level functionality.

• Manager map may provide strategic insights or summaries related to a team’s performance or service coverage, but it’s generally intended for higher-level overviews rather than real-time operational tracking.

Therefore, the Dispatch map is the only option tailored for day-to-day, real-time tracking of agent locations, which is essential for dispatchers responsible for coordinating field operations. Its purpose-built design allows for quick decision-making and efficient management of service delivery.

Question 10:

In a field service setup that uses territory management, what can administrators assign to individuals or teams to align with service needs?

A. Skills
B. Parts
C. Routes
D. Locations

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In a field service environment that uses territory management, administrators aim to ensure that the right personnel are assigned to jobs in specific geographic areas. One of the key aspects of this process is matching skills to territories. Admins can assign necessary skills to individual technicians or teams, ensuring that only qualified personnel are deployed within a particular territory.

Skills refer to the technical expertise or certifications required to perform specific service tasks. For example, in a region where many jobs involve HVAC repair, only technicians with HVAC certification would be assigned to that territory. This alignment increases efficiency, reduces task reassignment, and improves first-time fix rates.

Now, let’s look at why the other options do not align with territory management responsibilities:

• Parts are typically handled through inventory and supply chain management. While parts must be available for field service jobs, they are not assigned through territory management. Admins ensure that warehouses or vehicles are stocked appropriately, but parts aren’t directly linked to individuals through territory assignments.

• Routes are usually generated by the scheduling or optimization engine based on job locations, technician availability, and service-level agreements. Although dispatchers or schedulers might influence routes, they are not defined or assigned through the territory management process.

• Locations generally refer to where the service work is to be performed, such as a customer's home or business. These are tied to work orders and are automatically associated with territories based on geolocation. Field service admins do not manually assign locations to technicians through territory management.

In conclusion, the assignment of skills is central to effective territory management. This ensures that the right technicians, with the correct qualifications, are available in each territory, leading to more efficient service delivery and better customer outcomes.