Pass Your Microsoft SC-900 Exam Easy!

Microsoft SC-900 Exam Questions & Answers, Accurate & Verified By IT Experts

Instant Download, Free Fast Updates, 99.6% Pass Rate

SC-900 Premium Bundle

$79.99

Microsoft SC-900 Premium Bundle

SC-900 Premium File: 259 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

SC-900 Training Course: 147 Video Lectures

SC-900 PDF Study Guide: 413 Pages

SC-900 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-900" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download VCE exam simulator click here
Microsoft SC-900 Premium Bundle
Microsoft SC-900 Premium Bundle

SC-900 Premium File: 259 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

SC-900 Training Course: 147 Video Lectures

SC-900 PDF Study Guide: 413 Pages

$79.99

SC-900 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-900" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 55

Question 540

Following an internal access audit at a pharmaceutical distributor, the application administrator has to defend a design against oversimplified assumptions. The requirement is: IT wants visibility into sanctioned and unsanctioned cloud app usage and associated risks. The review is limited to the control and concept described by this requirement. Which unsupported assumption would MOST directly undermine this requirement?

  1. Assuming every Key Vault secret can perform key-based signing without using a key object.
  2. Assuming network asset inventory alone identifies all tenant cloud application behaviors.
  3. Assuming deploying a firewall alone verifies every container image and runtime configuration.
  4. Assuming each alert must be treated as an entirely independent breach without correlation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Assuming network asset inventory alone identifies all tenant cloud application behaviors. This belief conflicts with this control principle: Defender for Cloud Apps focuses on cloud application visibility and control, including shadow IT. The appropriate response instead is: Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery and cloud app monitoring capabilities.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assuming every Key Vault secret can perform key-based signing without using a key object. That caution concerns key vault key versus secret; the specific misconception here is: Assuming network asset inventory alone identifies all tenant cloud application behaviors.

C:

Assuming deploying a firewall alone verifies every container image and runtime configuration. That caution concerns defender for containers; the specific misconception here is: Assuming network asset inventory alone identifies all tenant cloud application behaviors.

D:

Assuming each alert must be treated as an entirely independent breach without correlation. That caution concerns sentinel incident investigation; the specific misconception here is: Assuming network asset inventory alone identifies all tenant cloud application behaviors.

Question 541

During a third-party integration at a subscription media service, the enterprise architect records this concrete requirement: A company wants to restrict downloads from a risky cloud application session. The solution must address this requirement directly, without replacing unrelated controls. Which primary response BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Evaluate matching NSG rules in effective priority order and apply the intended first match.
  2. Use Microsoft Sentinel hunting queries against available telemetry and preserve findings.
  3. Configure and validate the appropriate Sentinel data connector and required source permissions.
  4. Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps session controls integrated with the access policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps session controls integrated with the access policy. Cloud app session controls can apply policy while a user interacts with a protected application. To verify, test a targeted session and confirm the relevant activity is monitored or blocked.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Evaluate matching NSG rules in effective priority order and apply the intended first match. That addresses a different task: two NSG rules appear to conflict for the same traffic, and an administrator needs to predict the result. The present requirement concerns cloud apps session control.

B:

Use Microsoft Sentinel hunting queries against available telemetry and preserve findings. That addresses a different task: a SOC wants to investigate a threat hypothesis that has not yet matched an active analytic rule. The present requirement concerns cloud apps session control.

C:

Configure and validate the appropriate Sentinel data connector and required source permissions. That addresses a different task: a SOC has created a Sentinel workspace but sees no authentication events from its identity system. The present requirement concerns cloud apps session control.

Question 542

During a third-party integration at a subscription media service, the enterprise architect records this concrete requirement: A company wants to restrict downloads from a risky cloud application session. The solution must address this requirement directly, without replacing unrelated controls. The team implements the following response: Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps session controls integrated with the access policy. Which evidence BEST verifies that the action met its stated purpose?

  1. Test a targeted session and confirm the relevant activity is monitored or blocked.
  2. Query the relevant event table and confirm recent events arrived with expected timestamps.
  3. Run a hypothesis-driven hunt and record matching events or absence of evidence with scope.
  4. Review assessed control findings and linked evidence for the selected standard.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Test a targeted session and confirm the relevant activity is monitored or blocked. Cloud app session controls can apply policy while a user interacts with a protected application.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Query the relevant event table and confirm recent events arrived with expected timestamps. This would test sentinel data connectors, whereas the required evidence is: Test a targeted session and confirm the relevant activity is monitored or blocked.

C:

Run a hypothesis-driven hunt and record matching events or absence of evidence with scope. This would test sentinel threat hunting, whereas the required evidence is: Test a targeted session and confirm the relevant activity is monitored or blocked.

D:

Review assessed control findings and linked evidence for the selected standard. This would test regulatory compliance dashboard, whereas the required evidence is: Test a targeted session and confirm the relevant activity is monitored or blocked.

Question 543

Following a peer architecture review at a managed services company, the incident responder has to defend a design against oversimplified assumptions. The requirement is: A company wants to restrict downloads from a risky cloud application session. The review is limited to the control and concept described by this requirement. Which security, identity, or compliance principle MOST directly explains the appropriate approach?

  1. CSPM emphasizes visibility and risk reduction for cloud configurations and control alignment.
  2. Cloud app session controls can apply policy while a user interacts with a protected application.
  3. DDoS Protection addresses denial-of-service traffic; it is not the same control as web-request inspection.
  4. Threat hunting proactively searches for suspicious patterns rather than waiting only for alerts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cloud app session controls can apply policy while a user interacts with a protected application. It explains why the selected measure—Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps session controls integrated with the access policy—fits the specific requirement. It should be verified by checking: Test a targeted session and confirm the relevant activity is monitored or blocked.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CSPM emphasizes visibility and risk reduction for cloud configurations and control alignment. This describes cloud security posture management; the governing concept here is: Cloud app session controls can apply policy while a user interacts with a protected application.

C:

DDoS Protection addresses denial-of-service traffic; it is not the same control as web-request inspection. This describes azure ddos protection; the governing concept here is: Cloud app session controls can apply policy while a user interacts with a protected application.

D:

Threat hunting proactively searches for suspicious patterns rather than waiting only for alerts. This describes sentinel threat hunting; the governing concept here is: Cloud app session controls can apply policy while a user interacts with a protected application.

Question 544

Following a peer architecture review at a managed services company, the incident responder has to defend a design against oversimplified assumptions. The requirement is: A company wants to restrict downloads from a risky cloud application session. The review is limited to the control and concept described by this requirement. Which unsupported assumption would MOST directly undermine this requirement?

  1. Assuming a plain environment variable checked into source control provides equivalent secret governance.
  2. Assuming threat hunting can substitute for actually ingesting the source data being searched.
  3. Assuming an access decision at sign-in is the only point at which cloud app activities can be controlled.
  4. Assuming an NSG is a web-application attack signature engine that understands SQL injection payloads.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Assuming an access decision at sign-in is the only point at which cloud app activities can be controlled. This belief conflicts with this control principle: Cloud app session controls can apply policy while a user interacts with a protected application. The appropriate response instead is: Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps session controls integrated with the access policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assuming a plain environment variable checked into source control provides equivalent secret governance. That caution concerns azure key vault; the specific misconception here is: Assuming an access decision at sign-in is the only point at which cloud app activities can be controlled.

B:

Assuming threat hunting can substitute for actually ingesting the source data being searched. That caution concerns sentinel threat hunting; the specific misconception here is: Assuming an access decision at sign-in is the only point at which cloud app activities can be controlled.

D:

Assuming an NSG is a web-application attack signature engine that understands SQL injection payloads. That caution concerns network security groups; the specific misconception here is: Assuming an access decision at sign-in is the only point at which cloud app activities can be controlled.

Question 545

During a technology refresh at an industrial design firm, the training coordinator records this concrete requirement: SOC analysts need detection of suspicious on-premises Active Directory identity behavior. The solution must address this requirement directly, without replacing unrelated controls. Which primary response BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Defender for Identity with the required identity infrastructure sensors and coverage.
  2. Use the relevant Defender for Cloud security recommendation and fix the underlying configuration.
  3. Place an appropriate Azure Web Application Firewall policy in the web traffic path.
  4. Configure and validate the appropriate Sentinel data connector and required source permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Use Microsoft Defender for Identity with the required identity infrastructure sensors and coverage. Defender for Identity analyzes identity-related threats in supported on-premises environments. To verify, confirm sensor health and inspect alerts related to the supported directory environment.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use the relevant Defender for Cloud security recommendation and fix the underlying configuration. That addresses a different task: a cloud VM configuration violates a best-practice protection requirement and the team wants prioritized remediation. The present requirement concerns defender for identity.

C:

Place an appropriate Azure Web Application Firewall policy in the web traffic path. That addresses a different task: an internet website needs protection against common HTTP request attacks such as SQL injection. The present requirement concerns defender for identity.

D:

Configure and validate the appropriate Sentinel data connector and required source permissions. That addresses a different task: a SOC has created a Sentinel workspace but sees no authentication events from its identity system. The present requirement concerns defender for identity.

Question 546

During a technology refresh at an industrial design firm, the training coordinator records this concrete requirement: SOC analysts need detection of suspicious on-premises Active Directory identity behavior. The solution must address this requirement directly, without replacing unrelated controls. The team implements the following response: Use Microsoft Defender for Identity with the required identity infrastructure sensors and coverage. Which evidence BEST verifies that the action met its stated purpose?

  1. Trigger a test alert and inspect the automated workflow run and resulting approved actions.
  2. Confirm sensor health and inspect alerts related to the supported directory environment.
  3. Inspect connected resource coverage, posture findings, and workload alerts in Defender for Cloud.
  4. Test access from approved and unapproved networks and verify network policy enforcement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Confirm sensor health and inspect alerts related to the supported directory environment. Defender for Identity analyzes identity-related threats in supported on-premises environments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Trigger a test alert and inspect the automated workflow run and resulting approved actions. This would test soar concept, whereas the required evidence is: Confirm sensor health and inspect alerts related to the supported directory environment.

C:

Inspect connected resource coverage, posture findings, and workload alerts in Defender for Cloud. This would test microsoft defender for cloud overview, whereas the required evidence is: Confirm sensor health and inspect alerts related to the supported directory environment.

D:

Test access from approved and unapproved networks and verify network policy enforcement. This would test private connectivity and subnet rules, whereas the required evidence is: Confirm sensor health and inspect alerts related to the supported directory environment.

Question 547

Following a technical incident debrief at a national retailer, the identity administrator has to defend a design against oversimplified assumptions. The requirement is: SOC analysts need detection of suspicious on-premises Active Directory identity behavior. The review is limited to the control and concept described by this requirement. Which security, identity, or compliance principle MOST directly explains the appropriate approach?

  1. CSPM emphasizes visibility and risk reduction for cloud configurations and control alignment.
  2. Azure Bastion provides managed administrative connectivity without requiring a public IP on each VM.
  3. Defender for Identity analyzes identity-related threats in supported on-premises environments.
  4. SOAR coordinates security processes and automates response actions; it complements detection.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Defender for Identity analyzes identity-related threats in supported on-premises environments. It explains why the selected measure—Use Microsoft Defender for Identity with the required identity infrastructure sensors and coverage—fits the specific requirement. It should be verified by checking: Confirm sensor health and inspect alerts related to the supported directory environment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CSPM emphasizes visibility and risk reduction for cloud configurations and control alignment. This describes cloud security posture management; the governing concept here is: Defender for Identity analyzes identity-related threats in supported on-premises environments.

B:

Azure Bastion provides managed administrative connectivity without requiring a public IP on each VM. This describes azure bastion; the governing concept here is: Defender for Identity analyzes identity-related threats in supported on-premises environments.

D:

SOAR coordinates security processes and automates response actions; it complements detection. This describes soar concept; the governing concept here is: Defender for Identity analyzes identity-related threats in supported on-premises environments.

Question 548

Following a technical incident debrief at a national retailer, the identity administrator has to defend a design against oversimplified assumptions. The requirement is: SOC analysts need detection of suspicious on-premises Active Directory identity behavior. The review is limited to the control and concept described by this requirement. Which unsupported assumption would MOST directly undermine this requirement?

  1. Assuming Defender for Cloud is merely an antivirus agent for one Windows desktop.
  2. Assuming a playbook with no trigger can respond to an incident as soon as one is ingested.
  3. Assuming Azure Firewall automatically inspects traffic that was never routed through it.
  4. Assuming cloud email spam filtering monitors every on-premises domain controller identity attack.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Assuming cloud email spam filtering monitors every on-premises domain controller identity attack. This belief conflicts with this control principle: Defender for Identity analyzes identity-related threats in supported on-premises environments. The appropriate response instead is: Use Microsoft Defender for Identity with the required identity infrastructure sensors and coverage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assuming Defender for Cloud is merely an antivirus agent for one Windows desktop. That caution concerns microsoft defender for cloud overview; the specific misconception here is: Assuming cloud email spam filtering monitors every on-premises domain controller identity attack.

B:

Assuming a playbook with no trigger can respond to an incident as soon as one is ingested. That caution concerns sentinel playbooks; the specific misconception here is: Assuming cloud email spam filtering monitors every on-premises domain controller identity attack.

C:

Assuming Azure Firewall automatically inspects traffic that was never routed through it. That caution concerns azure firewall; the specific misconception here is: Assuming cloud email spam filtering monitors every on-premises domain controller identity attack.

Question 549

During a production cutover at a customer support provider, the cloud platform manager records this concrete requirement: Security needs a prioritized view of software exposure and remediation opportunities on devices. The solution must address this requirement directly, without replacing unrelated controls. Which primary response BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Use Sentinel incident views and related entities to triage the alert chain.
  2. Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management exposure and recommendation insights.
  3. Evaluate matching NSG rules in effective priority order and apply the intended first match.
  4. Use Defender for Cloud CSPM assessments and recommendations to evaluate cloud resource posture.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management exposure and recommendation insights. Vulnerability management identifies and prioritizes device exposure; it is not the same as storing passwords. To verify, inspect affected software, exposed devices, and remediation status after a corrective update.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Sentinel incident views and related entities to triage the alert chain. That addresses a different task: multiple alerts appear connected to one attacker session and analysts need a unified investigation. The present requirement concerns defender vulnerability management.

C:

Evaluate matching NSG rules in effective priority order and apply the intended first match. That addresses a different task: two NSG rules appear to conflict for the same traffic, and an administrator needs to predict the result. The present requirement concerns defender vulnerability management.

D:

Use Defender for Cloud CSPM assessments and recommendations to evaluate cloud resource posture. That addresses a different task: a cloud estate needs ongoing detection of insecure configurations before an attacker exploits them. The present requirement concerns defender vulnerability management.

Question 550

During a production cutover at a customer support provider, the cloud platform manager records this concrete requirement: Security needs a prioritized view of software exposure and remediation opportunities on devices. The solution must address this requirement directly, without replacing unrelated controls. The team implements the following response: Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management exposure and recommendation insights. Which evidence BEST verifies that the action met its stated purpose?

  1. Review grouped alerts, affected entities, and investigation status under one incident record.
  2. Inspect connected resource coverage, posture findings, and workload alerts in Defender for Cloud.
  3. Inspect affected software, exposed devices, and remediation status after a corrective update.
  4. Test the intended sign or verify operation and review audit activity for the key object.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect affected software, exposed devices, and remediation status after a corrective update. Vulnerability management identifies and prioritizes device exposure; it is not the same as storing passwords.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review grouped alerts, affected entities, and investigation status under one incident record. This would test sentinel incident investigation, whereas the required evidence is: Inspect affected software, exposed devices, and remediation status after a corrective update.

B:

Inspect connected resource coverage, posture findings, and workload alerts in Defender for Cloud. This would test microsoft defender for cloud overview, whereas the required evidence is: Inspect affected software, exposed devices, and remediation status after a corrective update.

D:

Test the intended sign or verify operation and review audit activity for the key object. This would test key vault key versus secret, whereas the required evidence is: Inspect affected software, exposed devices, and remediation status after a corrective update.


Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

SC-900 Premium File

Premium File
SC-900 Premium File
259 Q&A
$76.99$69.99

SC-900 Training Video Course

Training Course
SC-900 Training Video Course
147 Lectures
$27.49$24.99

SC-900 Study Guide

Study Guide
SC-900 Study Guide
413 PDF Pages
$27.49$24.99

Site Search:

 

VISA, MasterCard, AmericanExpress, UnionPay

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

ExamCollection Premium

ExamCollection Premium Files

Pass your Exam with ExamCollection's PREMIUM files!

  • ExamCollection Certified Safe Files
  • Guaranteed to have ACTUAL Exam Questions
  • Up-to-Date Exam Study Material - Verified by Experts
  • Instant Downloads
Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code
A Confirmation Link will be sent to this email address to verify your login
We value your privacy. We will not rent or sell your email address

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

Use Discount Code:

MIN10OFF

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.
Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examcollection.com and follow the directions.

Next

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your e-mail address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

Free Demo Limits: In the demo version you will be able to access only first 5 questions from exam.