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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 3

Question 20

A high-confidence ransomware incident shows automated isolation of a device while an analyst is planning redundant manual containment. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Adjudicate the incident and correct narrow signal or eligibility issues before global changes.
  2. Check the protection onboarding and supported attack-disruption eligibility documentation.
  3. Document affected assets, response evidence, and escalation according to the incident runbook.
  4. Check existing automatic disruption actions before initiating additional isolation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Reconciliation avoids duplicated disruption and ensures the response plan reflects current device state. This directly addresses the requirement to account for existing attack disruption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Tenant-wide disabling would reduce protection for unrelated high-confidence attacks. This addresses remediate disruption false positives proportionately; it does not directly satisfy account for existing attack disruption.

B:

Automatic identity containment requires supported product signals and licensing conditions. Its intended use is to verify identity disruption prerequisites, whereas this case requires the analyst to account for existing attack disruption.

C:

Operational-impact awareness complements high-confidence automated protective action. That action focuses on communicate disruption business impact rather than the specified need to account for existing attack disruption.

Question 21

A device is isolated after an incident but investigation packages must still be retrieved through allowed response channels. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Use supported Defender investigation or Live Response access on the isolated device where permitted.
  2. Reassess the hash and remove the expired block indicator through change control.
  3. Use the appropriate action audit or workflow notification for Live Response events.
  4. Configure a proper detection rule and separate any email notification subscription.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Isolation can preserve limited management connectivity for authorized responder actions. This directly addresses the requirement to collect evidence from isolated endpoints.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Removing an obsolete indicator restores approved files without removing unrelated protections. Its intended use is to retire outdated file-block indicators, whereas this case requires the analyst to collect evidence from isolated endpoints.

C:

Incident-created emails do not automatically cover every manual response action. That action focuses on trace remote response session activity rather than the specified need to collect evidence from isolated endpoints.

D:

Detection logic creates security alerts; notifications are follow-up communication controls. This addresses create actionable endpoint detections; it does not directly satisfy collect evidence from isolated endpoints.

Question 22

A custom rule intended to alert on execution instead only writes a notification email without generating an incident. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Reassess the hash and remove the expired block indicator through change control.
  2. Configure a proper detection rule and separate any email notification subscription.
  3. Use the appropriate action audit or workflow notification for Live Response events.
  4. Use supported Defender investigation or Live Response access on the isolated device where permitted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Detection logic creates security alerts; notifications are follow-up communication controls. This directly addresses the requirement to create actionable endpoint detections.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing an obsolete indicator restores approved files without removing unrelated protections. This addresses retire outdated file-block indicators; it does not directly satisfy create actionable endpoint detections.

C:

Incident-created emails do not automatically cover every manual response action. That action focuses on trace remote response session activity rather than the specified need to create actionable endpoint detections.

D:

Isolation can preserve limited management connectivity for authorized responder actions. This addresses collect evidence from isolated endpoints; it does not directly satisfy create actionable endpoint detections.

Question 23

A consultant has the Security Reader role but cannot isolate an endpoint protected by a restricted device group. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Check device grouping criteria and group precedence.
  2. Apply device group RBAC boundaries and least-privilege analyst assignments.
  3. Grant the appropriate response role scoped to that device group after approval.
  4. Record the current role assignments, implement the authorized change, and test an eligible pilot account.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Read-only privileges do not confer endpoint containment authority on protected groups. This directly addresses the requirement to authorize restricted-group endpoint isolation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Group membership evaluation and priority influence the applied security workflow. This addresses correct effective device-group policy; it does not directly satisfy authorize restricted-group endpoint isolation.

B:

Group-based role access limits which endpoint assets and actions are visible. Its intended use is to enforce subsidiary endpoint isolation, whereas this case requires the analyst to authorize restricted-group endpoint isolation.

D:

Controlled permission testing confirms the effective scope rather than assuming the role label is sufficient. This addresses validate role changes on pilot analysts; it does not directly satisfy authorize restricted-group endpoint isolation.

Question 24

An automation rule works on incident creation but not when an analyst reopens a closed case. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Verify the alert trigger's product scope and use a supported cross-product trigger if available.
  2. Grant the workflow's managed identity the least-privileged required Sentinel response role.
  3. Handle null or absent incident entities explicitly in the Logic Apps workflow.
  4. Add or adjust the incident-updated trigger and relevant status conditions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Reopen events are incident changes and require a matching update-triggered rule. This directly addresses the requirement to respond to reopened incidents.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sentinel alert trigger support differs from other alert sources and cannot be assumed universal. This addresses respect alert automation product boundaries; it does not directly satisfy respond to reopened incidents.

B:

Connector actions need authorization to update an incident independent of the trigger being received. Its intended use is to authorize playbook incident updates, whereas this case requires the analyst to respond to reopened incidents.

C:

Robust input validation prevents connectors from receiving invalid or missing fields. That action focuses on tolerate incomplete incident entity data rather than the specified need to respond to reopened incidents.

Question 25

A service desk request requires attaching a standard response checklist to every incident from one analytics rule. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Add incident tasks through a condition-scoped Sentinel automation rule.
  2. Configure an expiration date for the automation rule.
  3. Review incident history and the rule's execution trail.
  4. Set the automation rule order so assignment executes first.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The Add task action attaches consistent analyst steps to matching cases. This directly addresses the requirement to standardize incident response tasks.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Automation expiration prevents stale time-bound response workflows remaining active indefinitely. Its intended use is to expire temporary automation automatically, whereas this case requires the analyst to standardize incident response tasks.

C:

Incident change history and automation records support attribution of automated actions. That action focuses on audit automated incident modifications rather than the specified need to standardize incident response tasks.

D:

Rule ordering determines the sequence of matching automation rules for a trigger type. This addresses sequence incident assignment before tagging; it does not directly satisfy standardize incident response tasks.

Question 26

A high-risk user account is automatically contained in one eligible incident, but the organization wants to understand prerequisites. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Adjudicate the incident and correct narrow signal or eligibility issues before global changes.
  2. Check the protection onboarding and supported attack-disruption eligibility documentation.
  3. Check existing automatic disruption actions before initiating additional isolation.
  4. Document affected assets, response evidence, and escalation according to the incident runbook.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Automatic identity containment requires supported product signals and licensing conditions. This directly addresses the requirement to verify identity disruption prerequisites.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Tenant-wide disabling would reduce protection for unrelated high-confidence attacks. This addresses remediate disruption false positives proportionately; it does not directly satisfy verify identity disruption prerequisites.

C:

Reconciliation avoids duplicated disruption and ensures the response plan reflects current device state. That action focuses on account for existing attack disruption rather than the specified need to verify identity disruption prerequisites.

D:

Operational-impact awareness complements high-confidence automated protective action. This addresses communicate disruption business impact; it does not directly satisfy verify identity disruption prerequisites.

Question 27

Security wants the same playbook started by an analyst only after reviewing evidence, not automatically for every case. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Grant Sentinel access to the playbook's resource group and validate automation roles.
  2. Update the Logic Apps connector connection or secret reference through governed credentials.
  3. Provide a permitted manual run of the incident playbook.
  4. Run a Sentinel playbook implemented with Azure Logic Apps and the approved ITSM connector.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authorized manual playbook execution lets analysts control when an orchestration workflow acts. This directly addresses the requirement to trigger incident automation on demand.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sentinel requires explicit playbook permissions before the automation rule can invoke the workflow. This addresses resolve missing playbook execution authorization; it does not directly satisfy trigger incident automation on demand.

B:

Playbook authentication relies on valid managed connectors or protected secrets, not static incident comments. Its intended use is to restore external playbook connector authentication, whereas this case requires the analyst to trigger incident automation on demand.

D:

Logic Apps workflows integrate response data with external services under managed connection permissions. This addresses open ITSM tickets from incidents; it does not directly satisfy trigger incident automation on demand.

Question 28

A responder wants email when an automated remediation action needs human approval, rather than on every incident. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Subscribe eligible recipients to threat analytics notifications.
  2. Configure an incident email notification rule scoped to high severity.
  3. Narrow incident notification filters by severity or incident criteria.
  4. Configure action-center notification settings for pending actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Action-center notifications identify remediation actions awaiting review rather than broadcasting incident creation. This directly addresses the requirement to alert approvers about pending actions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat analytics notices surface published campaign intelligence independently of incident-alert volume. This addresses distribute campaign intelligence updates; it does not directly satisfy alert approvers about pending actions.

B:

Incident notification settings email eligible recipients when matching incident criteria arise. Its intended use is to notify the shift on new critical incidents, whereas this case requires the analyst to alert approvers about pending actions.

C:

Notification filters restrict email delivery without deleting the incidents themselves. That action focuses on reduce low-priority notification volume rather than the specified need to alert approvers about pending actions.

Question 29

A detected malicious attachment has triggered supported automated investigation; responders want an audit trail of proposed cleanup. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Review the automated investigation evidence and pending remediation actions in Action center.
  2. Inspect automated investigation status and its action history.
  3. Inspect the investigation and remediate or reverse the false-positive action through supported recovery workflows.
  4. Approve the validated pending remediation in Action center.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Automated investigation records conclusions and presents remediation history for oversight. This directly addresses the requirement to review automated cleanup decisions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Investigation statuses separate queued, running, completed, and remediated findings. Its intended use is to determine investigation completion state, whereas this case requires the analyst to review automated cleanup decisions.

C:

Confirming the mistaken verdict before rollback avoids blindly reversing legitimate protections. That action focuses on recover from mistaken automated remediation rather than the specified need to review automated cleanup decisions.

D:

Semi-automated remediation requires authorized review for actions awaiting approval. This addresses release a verified pending remediation; it does not directly satisfy review automated cleanup decisions.

Question 30

Threat hunting requires a supported endpoint event type that is not included in the currently configured collection settings. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Inspect sensor health and last-seen telemetry for the device.
  2. Enable the applicable supported custom collection option and verify event availability.
  3. Narrow configured collection or detection scope to the relevant signal sources.
  4. Run a bounded advanced hunting query against the expected event table for pilot devices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Advanced endpoint data collection settings determine whether specific supported telemetry is available for hunting. This directly addresses the requirement to collect missing endpoint hunting signals.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sensor diagnostics distinguish stale or unavailable endpoint event feeds from genuine no-activity periods. This addresses validate endpoint telemetry freshness; it does not directly satisfy collect missing endpoint hunting signals.

C:

Scoping targeted events reduces excess records without disabling the endpoint sensor entirely. That action focuses on tune endpoint telemetry relevance rather than the specified need to collect missing endpoint hunting signals.

D:

A controlled query validates that the relevant telemetry fields and records are arriving. This addresses verify pilot endpoint event ingestion; it does not directly satisfy collect missing endpoint hunting signals.


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