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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 12

Question 110

A modified ASR rule produces a spike in events on devices newly added to a group. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Require a measured audit-based exception review and narrow the policy if justified.
  2. Compare device-group assignments and ASR policy versions for the affected devices.
  3. Correlate ASR events with incident timeline and affected entities.
  4. Diagnose sensor health, network reachability, and latest event receipt.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Correlating policy deployment and event onset helps distinguish rollout impact from attack activity. This directly addresses the requirement to explain an ASR event spike.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Audited exceptions preserve protection while limiting broad unsupported allowlists. This addresses govern ASR exception approvals; it does not directly satisfy explain an ASR event spike.

C:

Joint analysis places preventative blocks in the wider attack sequence. That action focuses on reconstruct protected attack activity rather than the specified need to explain an ASR event spike.

D:

Inventory presence alone does not prove the Defender sensor is supplying current records. This addresses investigate stale endpoint sensor data; it does not directly satisfy explain an ASR event spike.

Question 111

A scheduled investigation keeps re-opening after identical alerts fire on restored devices. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Investigate the click and downstream account activity beyond the remediated attachment.
  2. Check Action center items before describing the device as fully remediated.
  3. Trace recurring evidence and determine whether the threat or detection logic remains active.
  4. Examine the automated investigation evidence and related device timeline before overriding it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Recurrence may indicate persistence or unresolved false-positive conditions. This directly addresses the requirement to resolve recurring automated investigations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cleanup of one artifact does not rule out separate credential or session compromise. This addresses assess residual phishing exposure; it does not directly satisfy resolve recurring automated investigations.

B:

Completed investigation analysis and completed remediation are distinct states. Its intended use is to distinguish analysis completion from cleanup completion, whereas this case requires the analyst to resolve recurring automated investigations.

D:

Investigation evidence can support or refute automated conclusions for an analyst. This addresses independently review an automated verdict; it does not directly satisfy resolve recurring automated investigations.

Question 112

A scheduled threat analytics mail arrives but does not imply an active compromise at the company. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Inspect incident history and relevant automated rule actions before reopening or changing policies.
  2. Scope the applicable email incident notification to severity and affected asset criteria.
  3. Filter the Defender Action center for pending remediation actions.
  4. Cross-check campaign indicators against organizational incidents and telemetry.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Threat analytics describes adversary campaigns; local exposure must be investigated separately. This directly addresses the requirement to validate campaign relevance to local incidents.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Incident history clarifies whether an automated process modified status or ownership. This addresses attribute unexpected incident closure; it does not directly satisfy validate campaign relevance to local incidents.

B:

Notifications can be restricted to the relevant risk threshold and target assets. Its intended use is to alert responders on relevant high-severity service incidents, whereas this case requires the analyst to validate campaign relevance to local incidents.

C:

Action-center state distinguishes proposed actions from already completed incident work. That action focuses on track pending analyst-approved remediations rather than the specified need to validate campaign relevance to local incidents.

Question 113

An analytic produces dozens of identical alerts from the same benign management task and analysts cannot see real cases. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Refine the condition or suppression scope to the verified benign activity while monitoring misses.
  2. Inspect approved configuration history and notification rule ownership.
  3. Remove unauthorized recipients and review the notification exposure.
  4. Review correlated Defender XDR incidents while retaining linked alert details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Alert tuning reduces noise only when the excluded behavior is explicitly understood. This directly addresses the requirement to decrease known benign duplicate alerts.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Change tracking reveals when recipient and filter configuration changed. Its intended use is to audit notification configuration drift, whereas this case requires the analyst to decrease known benign duplicate alerts.

C:

Notification permission hygiene prevents further leakage of operational incident context. That action focuses on contain accidental notification disclosure rather than the specified need to decrease known benign duplicate alerts.

D:

Incident correlation groups attack stages and keeps underlying alerts available for investigation. This addresses preserve multi-alert incident context; it does not directly satisfy decrease known benign duplicate alerts.

Question 114

The on-call group needs alert notices only if a defined service has active high-severity incidents. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Cross-check campaign indicators against organizational incidents and telemetry.
  2. Scope the applicable email incident notification to severity and affected asset criteria.
  3. Filter the Defender Action center for pending remediation actions.
  4. Inspect incident history and relevant automated rule actions before reopening or changing policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Notifications can be restricted to the relevant risk threshold and target assets. This directly addresses the requirement to alert responders on relevant high-severity service incidents.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat analytics describes adversary campaigns; local exposure must be investigated separately. This addresses validate campaign relevance to local incidents; it does not directly satisfy alert responders on relevant high-severity service incidents.

C:

Action-center state distinguishes proposed actions from already completed incident work. That action focuses on track pending analyst-approved remediations rather than the specified need to alert responders on relevant high-severity service incidents.

D:

Incident history clarifies whether an automated process modified status or ownership. This addresses attribute unexpected incident closure; it does not directly satisfy alert responders on relevant high-severity service incidents.

Question 115

A selected NRT detection produces an alert that needs immediate automation even without a separate incident. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Create an automation rule triggered when a matching incident is created.
  2. Restrict the rule to matching analytics rules or incident conditions.
  3. Use the supported alert-created automation trigger for that Sentinel alert.
  4. Use an incident-updated automation trigger with a severity condition.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Alert-created triggers can act on eligible Sentinel alerts independently of incident creation. This directly addresses the requirement to automate response to a new alert.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Incident-created triggers execute triage actions for newly opened incidents. This addresses automate new incident assignment; it does not directly satisfy automate response to a new alert.

B:

Restrictive conditions prevent actions from being applied to unrelated incidents. Its intended use is to narrow automation to relevant detections, whereas this case requires the analyst to automate response to a new alert.

D:

Update-triggered rules react to qualifying incident changes, not only incident creation. This addresses escalate on an incident severity update; it does not directly satisfy automate response to a new alert.

Question 116

An investigation finds a benign internal URL was accidentally blocked by a domain indicator. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Create a scoped file indicator with the appropriate block action.
  2. Validate indicator prerequisites, policy scope, and endpoint telemetry.
  3. Create or configure the supported IP indicator for auditing or alerting before enforcement.
  4. Review and remove the erroneous URL or domain block indicator.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Indicator policy precedence and exact value should be inspected before undoing an unintended block. This directly addresses the requirement to reverse a mistaken web indicator block.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File indicators target a known hash and supported response action rather than an entire file category. This addresses block a specific malicious file hash; it does not directly satisfy reverse a mistaken web indicator block.

B:

Indicator effectiveness depends on supported platform capability and assigned device policy scope. Its intended use is to troubleshoot indicator distribution, whereas this case requires the analyst to reverse a mistaken web indicator block.

C:

Supported indicator actions can surface matching network activity without immediately imposing the strongest block. That action focuses on observe a suspicious IP before enforcement rather than the specified need to reverse a mistaken web indicator block.

Question 117

The investigation status shows completed but one suspicious artifact remains pending action. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Check Action center items before describing the device as fully remediated.
  2. Investigate the click and downstream account activity beyond the remediated attachment.
  3. Trace recurring evidence and determine whether the threat or detection logic remains active.
  4. Examine the automated investigation evidence and related device timeline before overriding it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Completed investigation analysis and completed remediation are distinct states. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish analysis completion from cleanup completion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Cleanup of one artifact does not rule out separate credential or session compromise. Its intended use is to assess residual phishing exposure, whereas this case requires the analyst to distinguish analysis completion from cleanup completion.

C:

Recurrence may indicate persistence or unresolved false-positive conditions. That action focuses on resolve recurring automated investigations rather than the specified need to distinguish analysis completion from cleanup completion.

D:

Investigation evidence can support or refute automated conclusions for an analyst. This addresses independently review an automated verdict; it does not directly satisfy distinguish analysis completion from cleanup completion.

Question 118

A recurring benign event is suppressed across every endpoint although only one lab group performs the action. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Restore detection and change the notification subscription instead.
  2. Restrict suppression to the validated lab device group.
  3. Test related alert cases and review their grouping into an incident.
  4. Require the actual authorized action-center approval, not email receipt.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Scope-specific suppression avoids silencing identical behavior on higher-risk systems. This directly addresses the requirement to narrow suppression to known benign lab activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Alert generation and notification delivery are separate controls with different impacts. This addresses preserve detection while reducing emails; it does not directly satisfy narrow suppression to known benign lab activity.

C:

Controlled correlation testing catches unintended fragmentation or over-correlation. That action focuses on verify alert grouping after tuning rather than the specified need to narrow suppression to known benign lab activity.

D:

Notifications communicate state but do not execute or authorize remediation. This addresses distinguish notification from response authorization; it does not directly satisfy narrow suppression to known benign lab activity.

Question 119

After enabling new collection on a subset, the SOC wants proof that the desired event schema appears in hunting results. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Enable the applicable supported custom collection option and verify event availability.
  2. Inspect sensor health and last-seen telemetry for the device.
  3. Run a bounded advanced hunting query against the expected event table for pilot devices.
  4. Narrow configured collection or detection scope to the relevant signal sources.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A controlled query validates that the relevant telemetry fields and records are arriving. This directly addresses the requirement to verify pilot endpoint event ingestion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Advanced endpoint data collection settings determine whether specific supported telemetry is available for hunting. This addresses collect missing endpoint hunting signals; it does not directly satisfy verify pilot endpoint event ingestion.

B:

Sensor diagnostics distinguish stale or unavailable endpoint event feeds from genuine no-activity periods. Its intended use is to validate endpoint telemetry freshness, whereas this case requires the analyst to verify pilot endpoint event ingestion.

D:

Scoping targeted events reduces excess records without disabling the endpoint sensor entirely. This addresses tune endpoint telemetry relevance; it does not directly satisfy verify pilot endpoint event ingestion.

Question 120

A response workflow posts threat indicators to an unapproved public service. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Trigger the update workflow for the resolved transition and synchronize the external ticket.
  2. Apply bounded retry and backoff handling in the Logic Apps action.
  3. Add verified user or entity constraints and approval before identity-disabling actions.
  4. Replace the outbound integration with an approved authorized destination or remove that step.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Limiting data egress from response workflows protects sensitive incident intelligence. This directly addresses the requirement to prevent unapproved indicator disclosure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

State-aware updates keep the SOC case and downstream work item aligned. This addresses close external tickets after incident resolution; it does not directly satisfy prevent unapproved indicator disclosure.

B:

Backoff handles transient throttling without uncontrolled repeated requests. Its intended use is to mitigate temporary connector throttling, whereas this case requires the analyst to prevent unapproved indicator disclosure.

C:

Validation gates reduce overbroad identity disruption during orchestration. That action focuses on prevent mass identity containment rather than the specified need to prevent unapproved indicator disclosure.


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