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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 45

Question 440

Two divisions rate the same unencrypted backup issue as 'high' and 'medium' because their analysts use different likelihood descriptions. What improves comparability?

  1. Apply an agreed likelihood-impact rubric with documented assumptions
  2. Average the words high and medium to obtain a precise monetary loss
  3. Only adopt the rating given by the division with more staff
  4. Remove analyst notes to standardize report length

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Consistent criteria and evidence make qualitative ratings comparable across organizational units. Recovery controls have to be tested against actual restore requirements and isolated from the same compromise path; possessing a backup is not evidence that a timely, usable restoration is possible. The case turns on their analysts use different likelihood descriptions; “Apply an agreed likelihood-impact rubric with documented assumptions” addresses that precise condition. “Average the words high and medium to obtain a precise monetary loss” is not equivalent because ordinal labels cannot be arithmetically converted into financial impact without a model.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Ordinal labels cannot be arithmetically converted into financial impact without a model. Risk work separates frequency and loss estimates, risk tolerance, authorized treatment and documented residual exposure. In the reported situation, their analysts use different likelihood descriptions. The effective mechanism is “Apply an agreed likelihood-impact rubric with documented assumptions”: consistent criteria and evidence make qualitative ratings comparable across organizational units.

C:

Headcount is not a defensible substitute for shared risk assessment criteria. The evidence is their analysts use different likelihood descriptions. Risk work separates frequency and loss estimates, risk tolerance, authorized treatment and documented residual exposure. By contrast, “Apply an agreed likelihood-impact rubric with documented assumptions” operates on the specific concern: consistent criteria and evidence make qualitative ratings comparable across organizational units.

D:

Eliminating assumptions harms explainability without correcting inconsistent risk scales. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. Here the decisive fact is their analysts use different likelihood descriptions. “Apply an agreed likelihood-impact rubric with documented assumptions” matches that requirement because consistent criteria and evidence make qualitative ratings comparable across organizational units.

Question 441

A security control costs $12,000 per year and is forecast to reduce annualized expected loss from $60,000 to $22,000. Ignoring discounting, what is the net annual expected benefit of the control?

  1. A net expected annual benefit of $26,000
  2. A net expected annual benefit of $38,000
  3. A net expected annual benefit of $48,000
  4. A net expected annual benefit of $10,000

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The expected loss reduction is $38,000; subtracting the $12,000 annual control cost leaves $26,000 in net annual benefit. Risk work separates frequency and loss estimates, risk tolerance, authorized treatment and documented residual exposure. The case turns on a security control costs $12,000 per year and is forecast to reduce annualized expected loss from $60,000 to $22,000; “A net expected annual benefit of $26,000” addresses that precise condition. “A net expected annual benefit of $38,000” is not equivalent because this is the gross reduction in expected loss before subtracting the annual operating cost of the control.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This is the gross reduction in expected loss before subtracting the annual operating cost of the control. Risk work separates frequency and loss estimates, risk tolerance, authorized treatment and documented residual exposure. In the reported situation, a security control costs $12,000 per year and is forecast to reduce annualized expected loss from $60,000 to $22,000. The effective mechanism is “A net expected annual benefit of $26,000”: the expected loss reduction is $38,000; subtracting the $12,000 annual control cost leaves $26,000 in net annual benefit.

C:

This subtracts the control cost from baseline risk without accounting for the remaining $22,000 expected loss. The evidence is a security control costs $12,000 per year and is forecast to reduce annualized expected loss from $60,000 to $22,000. Risk work separates frequency and loss estimates, risk tolerance, authorized treatment and documented residual exposure. By contrast, “A net expected annual benefit of $26,000” operates on the specific concern: the expected loss reduction is $38,000; subtracting the $12,000 annual control cost leaves $26,000 in net annual benefit.

D:

This incorrectly subtracts the remaining risk from the control cost rather than comparing initial and residual annual loss. Risk work separates frequency and loss estimates, risk tolerance, authorized treatment and documented residual exposure. Here the decisive fact is a security control costs $12,000 per year and is forecast to reduce annualized expected loss from $60,000 to $22,000. “A net expected annual benefit of $26,000” matches that requirement because the expected loss reduction is $38,000; subtracting the $12,000 annual control cost leaves $26,000 in net annual benefit.

Question 442

A retailer has completed a business impact analysis: loss of card authorization causes contractual penalties after 30 minutes, while warehouse safety alerts become unacceptable after 10 minutes. What planning decision should management make from these findings?

  1. Approve service-specific recovery priorities and time targets based on the documented impacts and dependencies
  2. Give every service a 24-hour target because the applications all use a cloud provider
  3. Set recovery objectives solely from the capacity of the current backup storage system
  4. Declare that all outages are acceptable without identifying an accountable business risk owner

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The business impact analysis identifies the consequences and time sensitivity of failed processes. Management must translate those findings into service-specific recovery priorities and feasible RTO targets, then validate that dependencies and technology plans can meet them. The warehouse alerting function requires the more urgent protection under the stated assumptions. This scenario examines the decision made from the BIA results, rather than merely recognizing which analysis is used to discover critical operations. The resulting recovery targets also need explicit business ownership and a tested implementation so the documented time limits are actionable.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Cloud hosting does not establish how long the retailer can tolerate being unable to authorize payments or receive safety alerts. Shared service providers may still fail, and contract or safety impacts can arise long before a generic 24-hour interval expires. Targets must be tied to the business evidence, with their assumptions documented and tested. Treating every system identically would ignore the explicitly different 10-minute and 30-minute consequences.

C:

Backup capacity and restoration technology constrain what recovery might be achievable, but they do not determine the business maximum tolerable interruption. Choosing an RTO only because a backup system restores in several hours reverses the planning process and may leave urgent safety processes unsupported. Management should first define impact-based targets and then choose sufficient resilience mechanisms, or formally accept and document any remaining gap.

D:

An assertion that outages are acceptable cannot replace a risk decision made by an accountable business owner, especially when the BIA documents concrete penalties and safety consequences. The absence of ownership also prevents escalation if the recovery design cannot meet its target. Business leaders should approve priorities and residual risk based on the findings, with implementation teams supplying tested recovery capabilities. Unbounded acceptance would discard the critical decision evidence.

Question 443

An executive has approved an aggressive risk appetite for experimental marketing but a proposed database exposure would violate a specific contractual limit. What is the correct governance decision?

  1. Apply the marketing appetite universally to data storage
  2. Respect the lower contractual tolerance and escalate any proposed exception
  3. Replace the contract language with the executive's informal preference
  4. Stop measuring database access because growth is prioritized

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Broad growth appetite does not authorize exceeding a binding risk limit without proper review and lawful authority. Risk terms answer different questions: likelihood and loss estimate exposure, treatment changes the exposure, and authorized management accepts the residual risk. The stated evidence is a proposed database exposure would violate a specific contractual limit. This distinction rules out “Apply the marketing appetite universally to data storage”: risk appetite is contextual and cannot override specific external obligations automatically. “Respect the lower contractual tolerance and escalate any proposed exception” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risk appetite is contextual and cannot override specific external obligations automatically. Retention and storage policies determine evidence availability and lifecycle; they do not automatically solve the active permission failure. Here the decisive fact is a proposed database exposure would violate a specific contractual limit. “Respect the lower contractual tolerance and escalate any proposed exception” matches that requirement because broad growth appetite does not authorize exceeding a binding risk limit without proper review and lawful authority.

C:

Business preference cannot unilaterally amend a binding agreement. The evidence is a proposed database exposure would violate a specific contractual limit. A business risk or contractual measure can transfer or accept exposure without technically removing the vulnerable path. By contrast, “Respect the lower contractual tolerance and escalate any proposed exception” operates on the specific concern: broad growth appetite does not authorize exceeding a binding risk limit without proper review and lawful authority.

D:

Removing telemetry conceals unacceptable exposure instead of resolving the conflict. Risk work separates frequency and loss estimates, risk tolerance, authorized treatment and documented residual exposure. Here the decisive fact is a proposed database exposure would violate a specific contractual limit. “Respect the lower contractual tolerance and escalate any proposed exception” matches that requirement because broad growth appetite does not authorize exceeding a binding risk limit without proper review and lawful authority.

Question 444

A health clinic is choosing between two transcription vendors; one cannot explain how contractors access recorded patient conversations. What due-diligence evidence is most useful before selection?

  1. A certificate unrelated to the transcription service scope
  2. A documented identity, access and subcontractor control assessment
  3. A vendor logo redesign announcement
  4. A discount contingent on signing today

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The buyer needs evidence of who handles regulated audio, their privileges and the controls governing delegated processors. Supply-chain assurance must be matched to the delegated role and contracted responsibility, including evidence of controls and recovery expectations, not inferred solely from a supplier label. The stated evidence is a health clinic is choosing between two transcription vendors; one cannot explain how contractors access recorded patient conversations. This distinction rules out “A certificate unrelated to the transcription service scope”: assurance evidence must apply to the actual services and controls being procured. “A documented identity, access and subcontractor control assessment” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assurance evidence must apply to the actual services and controls being procured. A certificate check is about peer identity, signer trust or revocation. It cannot replace a separate application permission or endpoint control. Here the decisive fact is a health clinic is choosing between two transcription vendors; one cannot explain how contractors access recorded patient conversations. “A documented identity, access and subcontractor control assessment” matches that requirement because the buyer needs evidence of who handles regulated audio, their privileges and the controls governing delegated processors.

C:

Branding has no bearing on privileged handling of sensitive recordings. The evidence is a health clinic is choosing between two transcription vendors; one cannot explain how contractors access recorded patient conversations. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. By contrast, “A documented identity, access and subcontractor control assessment” operates on the specific concern: the buyer needs evidence of who handles regulated audio, their privileges and the controls governing delegated processors.

D:

Commercial urgency does not demonstrate safe processing or supplier oversight. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. Here the decisive fact is a health clinic is choosing between two transcription vendors; one cannot explain how contractors access recorded patient conversations. “A documented identity, access and subcontractor control assessment” matches that requirement because the buyer needs evidence of who handles regulated audio, their privileges and the controls governing delegated processors.

Question 445

A cloud backup vendor promises 99.9 percent monthly availability but its draft contract lacks an objective measurement or outage-remedy process. Which agreement clause is needed?

  1. A confidentiality-only non-disclosure agreement
  2. An unsigned internal vendor scorecard
  3. A service-level agreement defining metrics, measurement and remedies
  4. A generic memorandum of understanding about goodwill

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A measurable SLA explains uptime calculation, exclusions, reporting and contractual consequence for missing the target. For this case, its draft contract lacks an objective measurement or outage-remedy process. Recovery controls have to be tested against actual restore requirements and isolated from the same compromise path; possessing a backup is not evidence that a timely, usable restoration is possible. The competing choice “A confidentiality-only non-disclosure agreement” addresses a different mechanism: an NDA protects information sharing but does not quantify availability performance. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An NDA protects information sharing but does not quantify availability performance. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. Here the decisive fact is its draft contract lacks an objective measurement or outage-remedy process. “A service-level agreement defining metrics, measurement and remedies” matches that requirement because a measurable SLA explains uptime calculation, exclusions, reporting and contractual consequence for missing the target.

B:

Private scoring does not obligate the supplier to meet service levels or remediation terms. A signature can show which key signed an object, but provenance and authorization depend on how that key and build process are trusted. In the reported situation, its draft contract lacks an objective measurement or outage-remedy process. The effective mechanism is “A service-level agreement defining metrics, measurement and remedies”: a measurable SLA explains uptime calculation, exclusions, reporting and contractual consequence for missing the target.

D:

A nonbinding statement of cooperation is not a substitute for measurable service obligations. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. Here the decisive fact is its draft contract lacks an objective measurement or outage-remedy process. “A service-level agreement defining metrics, measurement and remedies” matches that requirement because a measurable SLA explains uptime calculation, exclusions, reporting and contractual consequence for missing the target.

Question 446

A payment processor wants to independently examine how a managed security provider protects logs used in an incident investigation. Which contractual right should it negotiate?

  1. A blanket exclusion of audit responsibilities
  2. A right-to-audit clause covering relevant records and safeguards
  3. An unconditional marketing testimonial clause
  4. An exclusivity provision for future hardware purchases

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Explicit audit rights provide a lawful route to evaluate supplier controls and evidence under defined conditions. Supply-chain assurance must be matched to the delegated role and contracted responsibility, including evidence of controls and recovery expectations, not inferred solely from a supplier label. The stated evidence is a payment processor wants to independently examine how a managed security provider protects logs used in an incident investigation. This distinction rules out “A blanket exclusion of audit responsibilities”: waiving inspection makes it harder to verify security obligations at the supplier. “A right-to-audit clause covering relevant records and safeguards” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Waiving inspection makes it harder to verify security obligations at the supplier. Assessment identifies a state and supplies findings, but does not itself enforce a preventive control or finish remediation. Here the decisive fact is a payment processor wants to independently examine how a managed security provider protects logs used in an incident investigation. “A right-to-audit clause covering relevant records and safeguards” matches that requirement because explicit audit rights provide a lawful route to evaluate supplier controls and evidence under defined conditions.

C:

Public endorsement does not entitle the customer to inspect control evidence. The evidence is a payment processor wants to independently examine how a managed security provider protects logs used in an incident investigation. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. By contrast, “A right-to-audit clause covering relevant records and safeguards” operates on the specific concern: explicit audit rights provide a lawful route to evaluate supplier controls and evidence under defined conditions.

D:

Procurement exclusivity has no necessary relation to incident-log audit access. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. Here the decisive fact is a payment processor wants to independently examine how a managed security provider protects logs used in an incident investigation. “A right-to-audit clause covering relevant records and safeguards” matches that requirement because explicit audit rights provide a lawful route to evaluate supplier controls and evidence under defined conditions.

Question 447

An outsourcing team has obtained only a completed self-assessment questionnaire; the supplier operates the organization's privileged remote access. Which additional evidence is strongest for independent assurance?

  1. A scoped independent control assessment with current exceptions and remediation status
  2. The supplier's general recruiting brochure
  3. A screenshot of the vendor's public homepage
  4. An unverified statement that the vendor is popular

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

External assurance tests claims beyond the supplier's own responses and can disclose unresolved weaknesses. Supply-chain assurance must be matched to the delegated role and contracted responsibility, including evidence of controls and recovery expectations, not inferred solely from a supplier label. The case turns on an outsourcing team has obtained only a completed self-assessment questionnaire; the supplier operates the organization's privileged remote access; “A scoped independent control assessment with current exceptions and remediation status” addresses that precise condition. “The supplier's general recruiting brochure” is not equivalent because staffing advertisements provide no assurance over production access safeguards.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Staffing advertisements provide no assurance over production access safeguards. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. In the reported situation, an outsourcing team has obtained only a completed self-assessment questionnaire; the supplier operates the organization's privileged remote access. The effective mechanism is “A scoped independent control assessment with current exceptions and remediation status”: external assurance tests claims beyond the supplier's own responses and can disclose unresolved weaknesses.

C:

Visual proof that a website exists is not an audit of privileged operations. The evidence is an outsourcing team has obtained only a completed self-assessment questionnaire; the supplier operates the organization's privileged remote access. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. By contrast, “A scoped independent control assessment with current exceptions and remediation status” operates on the specific concern: external assurance tests claims beyond the supplier's own responses and can disclose unresolved weaknesses.

D:

Popularity does not establish the effectiveness of privileged access controls. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. Here the decisive fact is an outsourcing team has obtained only a completed self-assessment questionnaire; the supplier operates the organization's privileged remote access. “A scoped independent control assessment with current exceptions and remediation status” matches that requirement because external assurance tests claims beyond the supplier's own responses and can disclose unresolved weaknesses.

Question 448

A procurement manager owns shares in a candidate supplier but participates in scoring its security questionnaire without disclosure. Which vendor-selection principle is violated?

  1. The need for automated endpoint backups
  2. Declare and manage the conflict of interest in procurement decisions
  3. Mandatory use of the cheapest available provider
  4. Network segmentation between customer and vendor

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Undisclosed financial influence can compromise impartial selection even if technical answers appear satisfactory. Supply-chain assurance must be matched to the delegated role and contracted responsibility, including evidence of controls and recovery expectations, not inferred solely from a supplier label. The stated evidence is participates in scoring its security questionnaire without disclosure. This distinction rules out “Network segmentation between customer and vendor”: segmentation reduces technical exposure but not biased procurement governance. “Declare and manage the conflict of interest in procurement decisions” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Business-continuity controls do not resolve evaluator impartiality. Backups and replicated copies mainly serve recovery and resilience; they do not inherently prevent an attacker from obtaining present access. Here the decisive fact is participates in scoring its security questionnaire without disclosure. “Declare and manage the conflict of interest in procurement decisions” matches that requirement because undisclosed financial influence can compromise impartial selection even if technical answers appear satisfactory.

C:

Price ranking does not address whether the assessor has undisclosed interests. The evidence is participates in scoring its security questionnaire without disclosure. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. By contrast, “Declare and manage the conflict of interest in procurement decisions” operates on the specific concern: undisclosed financial influence can compromise impartial selection even if technical answers appear satisfactory.

D:

Segmentation reduces technical exposure but not biased procurement governance. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. Here the decisive fact is participates in scoring its security questionnaire without disclosure. “Declare and manage the conflict of interest in procurement decisions” matches that requirement because undisclosed financial influence can compromise impartial selection even if technical answers appear satisfactory.

Question 449

A cloud service vendor has excellent perimeter controls but builds production images using an untracked third-party library from an abandoned maintainer. What supplier-risk check is most important?

  1. Disregard the issue because the vulnerability is not in in-house code
  2. Review the software supply chain and component provenance of delivered images
  3. Assume a trusted company name guarantees every dependency
  4. Examine only the provider's physical reception area

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Dependency origin, maintenance and build traceability can reveal upstream risks missed by infrastructure-only checks. A valid signature verifies which signing key endorsed a package, but a compromised build or publication process can still issue a signed artifact containing harmful code. The stated evidence is builds production images using an untracked third-party library from an abandoned maintainer. This distinction rules out “Disregard the issue because the vulnerability is not in in-house code”: a delivered product remains exposed through external components it executes. “Review the software supply chain and component provenance of delivered images” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A delivered product remains exposed through external components it executes. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. Here the decisive fact is builds production images using an untracked third-party library from an abandoned maintainer. “Review the software supply chain and component provenance of delivered images” matches that requirement because dependency origin, maintenance and build traceability can reveal upstream risks missed by infrastructure-only checks.

C:

Supplier reputation does not automatically validate all transitive components. The evidence is builds production images using an untracked third-party library from an abandoned maintainer. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. By contrast, “Review the software supply chain and component provenance of delivered images” operates on the specific concern: dependency origin, maintenance and build traceability can reveal upstream risks missed by infrastructure-only checks.

D:

Visitor management cannot establish dependency integrity in deployed images. Physical mechanisms address passage or impact at a location; they cannot directly repair software validation and network authorization defects. Here the decisive fact is builds production images using an untracked third-party library from an abandoned maintainer. “Review the software supply chain and component provenance of delivered images” matches that requirement because dependency origin, maintenance and build traceability can reveal upstream risks missed by infrastructure-only checks.

Question 450

A customer plans a penetration test of a provider-managed SaaS environment, but the supplier has not approved targets or permitted techniques. What document must be settled before testing?

  1. A press announcement about future security research
  2. Written rules of engagement defining scope, timing and authorized actions
  3. A generic employment offer for the tester
  4. A standing order allowing every technique against any neighboring tenant

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Rules of engagement clarify permissions, safe boundaries, notification and response contacts to prevent unauthorized testing. Supply-chain assurance must be matched to the delegated role and contracted responsibility, including evidence of controls and recovery expectations, not inferred solely from a supplier label. The stated evidence is the supplier has not approved targets or permitted techniques. This distinction rules out “A standing order allowing every technique against any neighboring tenant”: multi-tenant providers cannot grant unrestricted testing of unrelated customers. “Written rules of engagement defining scope, timing and authorized actions” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Publicity is not a substitute for target-specific testing consent and controls. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. Here the decisive fact is the supplier has not approved targets or permitted techniques. “Written rules of engagement defining scope, timing and authorized actions” matches that requirement because rules of engagement clarify permissions, safe boundaries, notification and response contacts to prevent unauthorized testing.

C:

Hiring paperwork does not establish authorization to probe provider infrastructure. The evidence is the supplier has not approved targets or permitted techniques. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. By contrast, “Written rules of engagement defining scope, timing and authorized actions” operates on the specific concern: rules of engagement clarify permissions, safe boundaries, notification and response contacts to prevent unauthorized testing.

D:

Multi-tenant providers cannot grant unrestricted testing of unrelated customers. Supplier controls must match delegated access and contractual obligations, with independent evidence of the stated safeguards where a claim requires it. Here the decisive fact is the supplier has not approved targets or permitted techniques. “Written rules of engagement defining scope, timing and authorized actions” matches that requirement because rules of engagement clarify permissions, safe boundaries, notification and response contacts to prevent unauthorized testing.


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