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SY0-701 Premium File: 1013 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 12, 2026

SY0-701 Training Course: 167 Video Lectures

SY0-701 PDF Study Guide: 1003 Pages

$79.99

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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 35

Question 340

A public-facing WAF blocks SQL injection patterns, but a trusted internal batch service can call the same database-backed API without passing through the WAF. Which control prevents SQL injection regardless of the caller network path?

  1. Use parameterized database queries and server-side validation for inputs from every API caller
  2. Collect additional WAF alerts while continuing to concatenate untrusted values into SQL statements
  3. Rely on the external firewall default-deny policy without validating calls from internal services
  4. Disable API audit logs to reduce request-processing overhead during the batch window

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Parameterized queries keep untrusted data values separate from executable SQL syntax, regardless of whether those values originate at a public browser or an internal batch service. Server-side validation and least-privilege database permissions add defense in depth, but input filtering alone does not replace parameter binding. Because the internal route bypasses the WAF, the lasting protection belongs in the application query construction. This item evaluates a shared application invariant rather than repeating a network-origin allowlist decision.

Incorrect Answers

B:

More WAF telemetry can help detect attempted attacks on the public route, but the internal caller never traverses that inspection point. Continuing to build SQL with concatenated untrusted data leaves a direct injection opportunity. Detection is not equivalent to removing the unsafe query-construction behavior. The server application must use safe parameter binding for every caller and retain logging as complementary incident evidence.

C:

A perimeter default-deny firewall limits external network reachability, but it may still permit authenticated internal batch traffic with dangerous input. If the application constructs SQL by concatenating values, an allowed route can carry an injection payload to the vulnerable interpreter. Network segmentation can reduce who can reach the API; it cannot substitute for separating executable query structure from data within the application.

D:

Disabling audit logs does not alter how SQL is parsed and may conceal malicious or mistaken batch operations. It makes it harder to determine what input triggered a failed query and who initiated it. If logging affects throughput, the organization can tune collection securely, but the injection flaw remains until the application uses safe parameter binding. Removing a detective control does not replace a preventive coding safeguard.

Question 341

A SOC needs to block new outbound connections to a domain confirmed as malicious across company endpoints immediately. Which coordinated control is effective?

  1. Create a SIEM detection alert for the domain while leaving its outbound connections permitted
  2. Apply a manual browser URL block on one analyst workstation only
  3. Block one public DNS server IP while leaving other resolvers and direct connections unrestricted
  4. Push updated DNS or secure-web-gateway block rules with telemetry

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A centrally enforced destination deny can prevent ordinary clients reaching the known command site. The important enforcement boundary is the physical entrance: an authorized credential should permit the intended person, while an unapproved attempt must be stopped rather than merely recorded. The case turns on a SOC needs to block new outbound connections to a domain confirmed as malicious across company endpoints immediately; “Push updated DNS or secure-web-gateway block rules with telemetry” addresses that precise condition. “Change the company logo on login pages” is not equivalent because visual identity has no effect on network resolution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A SIEM alert can identify attempted communication and supply investigation evidence, but it does not stop an endpoint from completing the malicious connection. The situation calls for immediate preventive action across many devices rather than detection alone. A centrally distributed protective DNS or secure-web-gateway block applies to the destination, while alerting can then verify that the denial occurs. Logging is complementary evidence, not the enforcement boundary.

B:

Blocking a URL in a single browser does not cover processes that resolve the domain outside that browser, nor does it reach the full managed endpoint fleet. The attacker may use a background agent or a different application to establish the same connection. A centrally managed DNS or gateway policy applies across relevant traffic sources, with exceptions reviewed. A local test can validate the indicator but is not the requested enterprise-wide containment.

C:

Blocking a single resolver may disrupt legitimate name lookups and does not necessarily stop the malicious destination from being resolved through another service or reached by its address. The threat is the confirmed malicious domain, not the availability of one particular public DNS server. Enforcing the domain deny in approved resolvers or secure-web gateways addresses the intended destination consistently while preserving audit evidence.

Question 342

A remote-access portal allows unlimited failed privileged logins and no adaptive checks. Which enterprise enhancement best resists automated guessing?

  1. Rate-limit authentication and apply step-up verification on risky access
  2. Send users a reminder to choose short passwords
  3. Disable every authentication event log
  4. Move the login button lower on the page

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Throttling and context-based factor checks increase attacker cost without hiding the portal. Policy enforcement must act at the specific resource, network, file or application boundary named in the security requirement. The case turns on a remote-access portal allows unlimited failed privileged logins and no adaptive checks; “Rate-limit authentication and apply step-up verification on risky access” addresses that precise condition. “Disable every authentication event log” is not equivalent because removing visibility does not slow guessing. Rate limits slow automated guessing, while adaptive verification raises the cost of suspicious access without treating every valid user as an attacker.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Shorter secrets make credential guessing easier. Written guidance and awareness influence behavior, but they do not by themselves enforce a technical or physical boundary. In the reported situation, a remote-access portal allows unlimited failed privileged logins and no adaptive checks. The effective mechanism is “Rate-limit authentication and apply step-up verification on risky access”: throttling and context-based factor checks increase attacker cost without hiding the portal.

C:

Removing visibility does not slow guessing. The evidence is a remote-access portal allows unlimited failed privileged logins and no adaptive checks. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. By contrast, “Rate-limit authentication and apply step-up verification on risky access” operates on the specific concern: throttling and context-based factor checks increase attacker cost without hiding the portal.

D:

UI positioning does not prevent scripted authentication requests. Policy enforcement must act at the specific resource, network, file or application boundary named in the security requirement. Here the decisive fact is a remote-access portal allows unlimited failed privileged logins and no adaptive checks. “Rate-limit authentication and apply step-up verification on risky access” matches that requirement because throttling and context-based factor checks increase attacker cost without hiding the portal.

Question 343

A departing engineer retains active directory access for weeks because HR and IT offboarding records are disconnected. What IAM workflow should be automated?

  1. Join HR departure events to timely account deprovisioning with exceptions audited
  2. Create a new service account for every departing employee
  3. Transfer the employee's password to their manager
  4. Wait for the next annual access review only

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Revocation driven by authoritative employment status reduces dormant privileged access. Least privilege requires evaluating the specific action and resource granted to a principal; a broadly authenticated identity should not inherit unrelated high-impact operations. The case turns on hR and IT offboarding records are disconnected; “Join HR departure events to timely account deprovisioning with exceptions audited” addresses that precise condition. “Create a new service account for every departing employee” is not equivalent because more identities do not remove the old employee's usable credentials.

Incorrect Answers

B:

More identities do not remove the old employee's usable credentials. Access entitlements govern which specific operations a principal may perform; granting broad roles can expand the damage of credential compromise. In the reported situation, hR and IT offboarding records are disconnected. The effective mechanism is “Join HR departure events to timely account deprovisioning with exceptions audited”: revocation driven by authoritative employment status reduces dormant privileged access.

C:

Password sharing undermines revocation and user accountability. The evidence is hR and IT offboarding records are disconnected. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. By contrast, “Join HR departure events to timely account deprovisioning with exceptions audited” operates on the specific concern: revocation driven by authoritative employment status reduces dormant privileged access.

D:

The account may be abused long before the next scheduled review. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. Here the decisive fact is hR and IT offboarding records are disconnected. “Join HR departure events to timely account deprovisioning with exceptions audited” matches that requirement because revocation driven by authoritative employment status reduces dormant privileged access.

Question 344

A support representative must verify an applicant's identity before issuing a high-assurance account, not merely send a reset link to a claimed mailbox. Which IAM activity is required?

  1. Identity proofing against trusted evidence and anti-fraud checks
  2. Granting administrator rights to accelerate enrollment
  3. Resource authorization without validating the person
  4. Increasing the login page font size

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Proofing establishes who the applicant is before credentials and privileges are provisioned. Least privilege requires evaluating the specific action and resource granted to a principal; a broadly authenticated identity should not inherit unrelated high-impact operations. The case turns on not merely send a reset link to a claimed mailbox; “Identity proofing against trusted evidence and anti-fraud checks” addresses that precise condition. “Granting administrator rights to accelerate enrollment” is not equivalent because privilege expansion is inappropriate before identity assurance.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Privilege expansion is inappropriate before identity assurance. Access entitlements govern which specific operations a principal may perform; granting broad roles can expand the damage of credential compromise. In the reported situation, not merely send a reset link to a claimed mailbox. The effective mechanism is “Identity proofing against trusted evidence and anti-fraud checks”: proofing establishes who the applicant is before credentials and privileges are provisioned.

C:

Permissions are not meaningful if the account's owner is unproven. The evidence is not merely send a reset link to a claimed mailbox. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. By contrast, “Identity proofing against trusted evidence and anti-fraud checks” operates on the specific concern: proofing establishes who the applicant is before credentials and privileges are provisioned.

D:

Presentation changes do not assess identity evidence. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. Here the decisive fact is not merely send a reset link to a claimed mailbox. “Identity proofing against trusted evidence and anti-fraud checks” matches that requirement because proofing establishes who the applicant is before credentials and privileges are provisioned.

Question 345

A finance system consumes identity assertions from a separate trusted corporate identity provider. Which capability enables cross-domain sign-in without local passwords?

  1. Copy every corporate password into the finance system
  2. Expose LDAP anonymously on the Internet
  3. Disable signature validation on incoming identity messages
  4. Federated authentication with validated signed assertions

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Federation permits a relying party to trust an external identity provider under a configured relationship. Recovery controls have to be tested against actual restore requirements and isolated from the same compromise path; possessing a backup is not evidence that a timely, usable restoration is possible. The case turns on a finance system consumes identity assertions from a separate trusted corporate identity provider; “Federated authentication with validated signed assertions” addresses that precise condition. “Copy every corporate password into the finance system” is not equivalent because password duplication defeats the purpose of trust-based federation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Password duplication defeats the purpose of trust-based federation. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a finance system consumes identity assertions from a separate trusted corporate identity provider. “Federated authentication with validated signed assertions” matches that requirement because federation permits a relying party to trust an external identity provider under a configured relationship.

B:

Directory queries do not establish protected federated assertions. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. In the reported situation, a finance system consumes identity assertions from a separate trusted corporate identity provider. The effective mechanism is “Federated authentication with validated signed assertions”: federation permits a relying party to trust an external identity provider under a configured relationship.

C:

Unsigned or unverified assertions are susceptible to impersonation. The evidence is a finance system consumes identity assertions from a separate trusted corporate identity provider. Integrity evidence helps detect unauthorized changes only when compared with a trusted reference; it is not a substitute for authorization or confidentiality. By contrast, “Federated authentication with validated signed assertions” operates on the specific concern: federation permits a relying party to trust an external identity provider under a configured relationship.

Question 346

An enterprise employee logs into one identity platform and then uses several authorized applications without repeatedly entering credentials. Which experience is delivered?

  1. A network packet capture of passwords
  2. One permanent global authorization to all resources
  3. Single sign-on with separate application authorization
  4. Password reuse manually across all websites

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

SSO shares an authenticated session while each app still checks permissions. For this case, uses several authorized applications without repeatedly entering credentials. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. The competing choice “One permanent global authorization to all resources” addresses a different mechanism: sSO does not imply unrestricted rights in every connected app. That difference is material to the requested decision. Single sign-on reduces repeated authentication prompts, but each application must still evaluate its own authorization rules before releasing protected data.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Captured secrets are not an authenticated shared sign-in mechanism. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is uses several authorized applications without repeatedly entering credentials. “Single sign-on with separate application authorization” matches that requirement because sSO shares an authenticated session while each app still checks permissions.

B:

SSO does not imply unrestricted rights in every connected app. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. In the reported situation, uses several authorized applications without repeatedly entering credentials. The effective mechanism is “Single sign-on with separate application authorization”: sSO shares an authenticated session while each app still checks permissions.

D:

Reused secrets are not the same as a trusted SSO session. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is uses several authorized applications without repeatedly entering credentials. “Single sign-on with separate application authorization” matches that requirement because sSO shares an authenticated session while each app still checks permissions.

Question 347

A new service needs delegated access to calendar availability but must not learn the user's password or read all their mail. Which standard delegation framework is appropriate?

  1. Unrestricted anonymous IMAP access to the mailbox
  2. OAuth authorization with narrowly limited resource scopes
  3. Publish the user's password in the app's configuration
  4. Use a certificate revocation list as an API token

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A scoped token can authorize a limited API function without disclosing the account password. Risk terms answer different questions: likelihood and loss estimate exposure, treatment changes the exposure, and authorized management accepts the residual risk. The stated evidence is must not learn the user's password or read all their mail. This distinction rules out “Publish the user's password in the app's configuration”: password sharing grants much broader and less auditable account access. “OAuth authorization with narrowly limited resource scopes” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Email protocol exposure exceeds the requested availability-only scope. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. Here the decisive fact is must not learn the user's password or read all their mail. “OAuth authorization with narrowly limited resource scopes” matches that requirement because a scoped token can authorize a limited API function without disclosing the account password.

C:

Password sharing grants much broader and less auditable account access. The evidence is must not learn the user's password or read all their mail. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. By contrast, “OAuth authorization with narrowly limited resource scopes” operates on the specific concern: a scoped token can authorize a limited API function without disclosing the account password.

D:

CRLs report certificate status and do not grant calendar authorization. A certificate check is about peer identity, signer trust or revocation. It cannot replace a separate application permission or endpoint control. Here the decisive fact is must not learn the user's password or read all their mail. “OAuth authorization with narrowly limited resource scopes” matches that requirement because a scoped token can authorize a limited API function without disclosing the account password.

Question 348

An administrator needs to authenticate an employee against a central directory but not issue web SSO identity assertions. Which protocol is commonly used for directory queries?

  1. A public analytics dashboard
  2. DNSSEC signing of a public zone
  3. SMTP relay without authentication
  4. LDAP with protected authentication and transport

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

LDAP can query and authenticate directory entries when securely configured. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. The case turns on not issue web SSO identity assertions; “LDAP with protected authentication and transport” addresses that precise condition. “SMTP relay without authentication” is not equivalent because email relay cannot safely query a corporate user directory. LDAP supports directory lookups and authentication interactions; its channel and bind method must be secured to avoid disclosing credentials or directory data.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Dashboards do not provide directory identity search semantics. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. Here the decisive fact is not issue web SSO identity assertions. “LDAP with protected authentication and transport” matches that requirement because LDAP can query and authenticate directory entries when securely configured.

B:

DNSSEC protects DNS records, not arbitrary enterprise directory queries. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. In the reported situation, not issue web SSO identity assertions. The effective mechanism is “LDAP with protected authentication and transport”: LDAP can query and authenticate directory entries when securely configured.

C:

Email relay cannot safely query a corporate user directory. The evidence is not issue web SSO identity assertions. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. By contrast, “LDAP with protected authentication and transport” operates on the specific concern: LDAP can query and authenticate directory entries when securely configured.

Question 349

A SaaS application receives a signed XML authentication assertion from the company's identity service. Which federation format matches the evidence?

  1. An SSH terminal command transcript
  2. A raw database administrator password
  3. An unverified browser bookmark
  4. SAML assertion exchanged through a configured trust relationship

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

SAML transports identity statements that the service provider verifies before granting a session. Evidence quality depends on acquisition provenance, controlled handling and the ability to reproduce the finding; merely locating an artifact does not authenticate its origin. The case turns on a SaaS application receives a signed XML authentication assertion from the company's identity service; “SAML assertion exchanged through a configured trust relationship” addresses that precise condition. “A raw database administrator password” is not equivalent because a password string is not a signed identity assertion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shell sessions do not deliver SAML web federation claims. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. Here the decisive fact is a SaaS application receives a signed XML authentication assertion from the company's identity service. “SAML assertion exchanged through a configured trust relationship” matches that requirement because SAML transports identity statements that the service provider verifies before granting a session.

B:

A password string is not a signed identity assertion. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. In the reported situation, a SaaS application receives a signed XML authentication assertion from the company's identity service. The effective mechanism is “SAML assertion exchanged through a configured trust relationship”: SAML transports identity statements that the service provider verifies before granting a session.

C:

Bookmarks do not establish a cryptographic identity-provider relationship. The evidence is a SaaS application receives a signed XML authentication assertion from the company's identity service. Browser and web-origin mechanisms affect one request path; the right diagnosis depends on whether the client or trusted server is performing the sensitive action. By contrast, “SAML assertion exchanged through a configured trust relationship” operates on the specific concern: SAML transports identity statements that the service provider verifies before granting a session.

Question 350

An employee can read a report only if they belong to the Finance group, regardless of which workstation they use. Which permission model is applied?

  1. Uncontrolled discretionary sharing by every user
  2. A location-only firewall ACL
  3. Role-based access control using assigned business roles
  4. A mandatory secrecy label above the user's clearance

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

RBAC maps membership in a defined role to allowed resources. For this case, regardless of which workstation they use. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. The competing choice “A location-only firewall ACL” addresses a different mechanism: network source does not establish membership in the Finance role. That difference is material to the requested decision. Membership should be provisioned and reviewed through accountable role assignment; changing workstations should not silently grant access when the authorized role is absent.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A user-chosen grant is a different permission model. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. Here the decisive fact is regardless of which workstation they use. “Role-based access control using assigned business roles” matches that requirement because RBAC maps membership in a defined role to allowed resources.

B:

Network source does not establish membership in the Finance role. Network restrictions govern allowed flows and trust boundaries, not every application-layer input or business permission. In the reported situation, regardless of which workstation they use. The effective mechanism is “Role-based access control using assigned business roles”: RBAC maps membership in a defined role to allowed resources.

D:

Mandatory labels evaluate classification rather than a Finance group role. Identity lifecycle includes proofing, authentication, authorization and deprovisioning; success in one phase never automatically establishes success in another. Here the decisive fact is regardless of which workstation they use. “Role-based access control using assigned business roles” matches that requirement because RBAC maps membership in a defined role to allowed resources.


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