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SY0-701 Premium File: 1013 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 12, 2026

SY0-701 Training Course: 167 Video Lectures

SY0-701 PDF Study Guide: 1003 Pages

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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 20

Question 190

A business uses software-defined networking to update routing and firewall rules centrally. Which new control-plane risk must be prioritized?

  1. Protect SDN controllers and their programming interfaces from takeover
  2. Assume encrypted user traffic makes policy compromise harmless
  3. Treat each data-plane switch as unrelated to policy enforcement
  4. Disable controller authentication to simplify automation

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A compromised controller can rewrite policy for large portions of the network. A useful network control is testable in both directions: approved business traffic must continue while unrelated source, destination and port combinations are explicitly rejected. The case turns on a business uses software-defined networking to update routing and firewall rules centrally; “Protect SDN controllers and their programming interfaces from takeover” addresses that precise condition. “Treat each data-plane switch as unrelated to policy enforcement” is not equivalent because switches follow the controller's rules and remain affected by its trustworthiness.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Even encrypted packets can be rerouted, dropped or exposed through malicious network rules. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. In the reported situation, a business uses software-defined networking to update routing and firewall rules centrally. The effective mechanism is “Protect SDN controllers and their programming interfaces from takeover”: a compromised controller can rewrite policy for large portions of the network.

C:

Switches follow the controller's rules and remain affected by its trustworthiness. The evidence is a business uses software-defined networking to update routing and firewall rules centrally. Deployment models determine who controls the platform, which trust boundaries exist and where authentication, segregation and logging must be enforced. By contrast, “Protect SDN controllers and their programming interfaces from takeover” operates on the specific concern: a compromised controller can rewrite policy for large portions of the network.

D:

Unauthenticated APIs invite unauthorized network-wide policy changes. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a business uses software-defined networking to update routing and firewall rules centrally. “Protect SDN controllers and their programming interfaces from takeover” matches that requirement because a compromised controller can rewrite policy for large portions of the network.

Question 191

An organization creates temporary test environments from immutable images but never inventories their deployed instances. What architectural weakness remains?

  1. A need to eliminate infrastructure templates
  2. An inability to use encryption for temporary disks
  3. Guaranteed permanent immunity to vulnerability scanning
  4. Untracked ephemeral assets escaping lifecycle and security management

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Short-lived resources can still expose data and require discovery, patching and deletion controls. Recovery controls have to be tested against actual restore requirements and isolated from the same compromise path; possessing a backup is not evidence that a timely, usable restoration is possible. The case turns on never inventories their deployed instances; “Untracked ephemeral assets escaping lifecycle and security management” addresses that precise condition. “An inability to use encryption for temporary disks” is not equivalent because temporary disks can still be encrypted and securely disposed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Templates make repeatable creation easier rather than causing missing inventory by themselves. Deployment models determine who controls the platform, which trust boundaries exist and where authentication, segregation and logging must be enforced. Here the decisive fact is never inventories their deployed instances. “Untracked ephemeral assets escaping lifecycle and security management” matches that requirement because short-lived resources can still expose data and require discovery, patching and deletion controls.

B:

Temporary disks can still be encrypted and securely disposed. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. In the reported situation, never inventories their deployed instances. The effective mechanism is “Untracked ephemeral assets escaping lifecycle and security management”: short-lived resources can still expose data and require discovery, patching and deletion controls.

C:

Ephemerality does not protect insecure instances while they are running. The evidence is never inventories their deployed instances. Assessment identifies a state and supplies findings, but does not itself enforce a preventive control or finish remediation. By contrast, “Untracked ephemeral assets escaping lifecycle and security management” operates on the specific concern: short-lived resources can still expose data and require discovery, patching and deletion controls.

Question 192

A public cloud tenant asks whether moving a database to managed PaaS removes responsibility for configuring who may query it. Which answer is correct?

  1. The customer still controls data permissions and authorized users
  2. Physical disk replacement becomes a tenant employee duty
  3. The provider must grant every user unrestricted read access
  4. All application passwords become publicly discoverable by design

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Managed infrastructure does not transfer the tenant's business-level data authorization decisions. Deployment models determine who controls the platform, which trust boundaries exist and where authentication, segregation and logging must be enforced. The case turns on a public cloud tenant asks whether moving a database to managed PaaS removes responsibility for configuring who may query it; “The customer still controls data permissions and authorized users” addresses that precise condition. “Physical disk replacement becomes a tenant employee duty” is not equivalent because hardware replacement generally remains a provider responsibility.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Hardware replacement generally remains a provider responsibility. Physical mechanisms address passage or impact at a location; they cannot directly repair software validation and network authorization defects. In the reported situation, a public cloud tenant asks whether moving a database to managed PaaS removes responsibility for configuring who may query it. The effective mechanism is “The customer still controls data permissions and authorized users”: managed infrastructure does not transfer the tenant's business-level data authorization decisions.

C:

Managed operation does not justify universal business access. The evidence is a public cloud tenant asks whether moving a database to managed PaaS removes responsibility for configuring who may query it. Deployment models determine who controls the platform, which trust boundaries exist and where authentication, segregation and logging must be enforced. By contrast, “The customer still controls data permissions and authorized users” operates on the specific concern: managed infrastructure does not transfer the tenant's business-level data authorization decisions.

D:

PaaS does not require exposing credentials to clients. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a public cloud tenant asks whether moving a database to managed PaaS removes responsibility for configuring who may query it. “The customer still controls data permissions and authorized users” matches that requirement because managed infrastructure does not transfer the tenant's business-level data authorization decisions.

Question 193

A disaster recovery copy must remain geographically separated from the primary site, but business rules forbid export of customer records outside one country. What design constraint should dominate region selection?

  1. Keep a second copy on the primary server's local disk
  2. Replicate into any foreign region offering the lowest price
  3. Choose an independent in-country recovery location satisfying residency rules
  4. Disable audit trails to simplify interregion replication

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Resilience can use separate failure domains without violating declared geographic data restrictions. For this case, business rules forbid export of customer records outside one country. Recovery controls have to be tested against actual restore requirements and isolated from the same compromise path; possessing a backup is not evidence that a timely, usable restoration is possible. The competing choice “Keep a second copy on the primary server's local disk” addresses a different mechanism: local copies do not provide geographic failure separation. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Local copies do not provide geographic failure separation. Deployment models determine who controls the platform, which trust boundaries exist and where authentication, segregation and logging must be enforced. Here the decisive fact is business rules forbid export of customer records outside one country. “Choose an independent in-country recovery location satisfying residency rules” matches that requirement because resilience can use separate failure domains without violating declared geographic data restrictions.

B:

Low cost does not override the stated customer-data residency restriction. Backups and replicated copies mainly serve recovery and resilience; they do not inherently prevent an attacker from obtaining present access. In the reported situation, business rules forbid export of customer records outside one country. The effective mechanism is “Choose an independent in-country recovery location satisfying residency rules”: resilience can use separate failure domains without violating declared geographic data restrictions.

D:

Logging is compatible with a compliant regional recovery design. Backups and replicated copies mainly serve recovery and resilience; they do not inherently prevent an attacker from obtaining present access. Here the decisive fact is business rules forbid export of customer records outside one country. “Choose an independent in-country recovery location satisfying residency rules” matches that requirement because resilience can use separate failure domains without violating declared geographic data restrictions.

Question 194

A production service uses automatic scaling that launches dozens of new hosts in minutes. Which security control must accompany the ephemeral infrastructure model?

  1. Disable monitoring for newly added hosts to save startup time
  2. Require a human to assign the same admin password to every clone
  3. Apply approved immutable images and identity policies to every new instance
  4. Patch one manually chosen instance and assume all others inherit it live

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Autoscaling safely multiplies only when each copy starts from a controlled configuration and least privilege. For this case, a production service uses automatic scaling that launches dozens of new hosts in minutes. Recovery controls have to be tested against actual restore requirements and isolated from the same compromise path; possessing a backup is not evidence that a timely, usable restoration is possible. The competing choice “Patch one manually chosen instance and assume all others inherit it live” addresses a different mechanism: already running hosts do not automatically adopt a random host's manual changes. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unobserved instances create detection gaps just as capacity grows. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. Here the decisive fact is a production service uses automatic scaling that launches dozens of new hosts in minutes. “Apply approved immutable images and identity policies to every new instance” matches that requirement because autoscaling safely multiplies only when each copy starts from a controlled configuration and least privilege.

B:

Shared credentials increase exposure and impede reliable high-speed scaling. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. In the reported situation, a production service uses automatic scaling that launches dozens of new hosts in minutes. The effective mechanism is “Apply approved immutable images and identity policies to every new instance”: autoscaling safely multiplies only when each copy starts from a controlled configuration and least privilege.

D:

Already running hosts do not automatically adopt a random host's manual changes. Patches address known software faults, but deployment must also preserve service compatibility and verify that the vulnerable component was actually replaced. Here the decisive fact is a production service uses automatic scaling that launches dozens of new hosts in minutes. “Apply approved immutable images and identity policies to every new instance” matches that requirement because autoscaling safely multiplies only when each copy starts from a controlled configuration and least privilege.

Question 195

A data analytics team wants to let temporary external researchers work on anonymized datasets without touching internal identity stores. Which architectural pattern better contains their environment?

  1. Use one permanent shared administrator for all guests
  2. Isolated project tenant with scoped federated access and sanitized data
  3. Copy raw customer data into each researcher's personal drive
  4. Directly connect researcher laptops to the internal domain controller

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Separate identity scopes and preprocessed datasets avoid giving external users a path into core systems. Deployment models determine who controls the platform, which trust boundaries exist and where authentication, segregation and logging must be enforced. The stated evidence is a data analytics team wants to let temporary external researchers work on anonymized datasets without touching internal identity stores. This distinction rules out “Directly connect researcher laptops to the internal domain controller”: external devices would cross the intended trust boundary. “Isolated project tenant with scoped federated access and sanitized data” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared broad privilege prevents attribution and containment. Access entitlements govern which specific operations a principal may perform; granting broad roles can expand the damage of credential compromise. Here the decisive fact is a data analytics team wants to let temporary external researchers work on anonymized datasets without touching internal identity stores. “Isolated project tenant with scoped federated access and sanitized data” matches that requirement because separate identity scopes and preprocessed datasets avoid giving external users a path into core systems.

C:

Distribution defeats both tenant isolation and privacy safeguards. The evidence is a data analytics team wants to let temporary external researchers work on anonymized datasets without touching internal identity stores. Deployment models determine who controls the platform, which trust boundaries exist and where authentication, segregation and logging must be enforced. By contrast, “Isolated project tenant with scoped federated access and sanitized data” operates on the specific concern: separate identity scopes and preprocessed datasets avoid giving external users a path into core systems.

D:

External devices would cross the intended trust boundary. Deployment models determine who controls the platform, which trust boundaries exist and where authentication, segregation and logging must be enforced. Here the decisive fact is a data analytics team wants to let temporary external researchers work on anonymized datasets without touching internal identity stores. “Isolated project tenant with scoped federated access and sanitized data” matches that requirement because separate identity scopes and preprocessed datasets avoid giving external users a path into core systems.

Question 196

A public website must accept Internet HTTPS, but the payroll database should accept connections only from the application tier. Which placement establishes an appropriate network boundary?

  1. Expose the database listener directly to the public Internet
  2. Disable database encryption because the frontend uses TLS
  3. Place all services in the same unrestricted subnet
  4. Put the public entry service in a screened zone with restricted backend flows

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A DMZ and explicit application-to-database path avoid exposing payroll storage to arbitrary clients. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. The case turns on the payroll database should accept connections only from the application tier; “Put the public entry service in a screened zone with restricted backend flows” addresses that precise condition. “Expose the database listener directly to the public Internet” is not equivalent because direct access bypasses the application tier and increases sensitive-data attack surface.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Direct access bypasses the application tier and increases sensitive-data attack surface. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. Here the decisive fact is the payroll database should accept connections only from the application tier. “Put the public entry service in a screened zone with restricted backend flows” matches that requirement because a DMZ and explicit application-to-database path avoid exposing payroll storage to arbitrary clients.

B:

Transport protection at ingress does not protect internal storage or queries. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. In the reported situation, the payroll database should accept connections only from the application tier. The effective mechanism is “Put the public entry service in a screened zone with restricted backend flows”: a DMZ and explicit application-to-database path avoid exposing payroll storage to arbitrary clients.

C:

Flat reachability defeats the required trust separation. The evidence is the payroll database should accept connections only from the application tier. Network restrictions govern allowed flows and trust boundaries, not every application-layer input or business permission. By contrast, “Put the public entry service in a screened zone with restricted backend flows” operates on the specific concern: a DMZ and explicit application-to-database path avoid exposing payroll storage to arbitrary clients.

Question 197

An organization needs to inspect inbound HTTP requests for suspicious application payloads, not just TCP destination ports. Which protective component fits best?

  1. Uninterruptible power supply
  2. Disk encryption on client laptops
  3. Simple stateless IP allowlist alone
  4. Web application firewall with HTTP-aware rules

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

WAF inspection can evaluate request paths, parameters and headers at the application layer. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. The case turns on an organization needs to inspect inbound HTTP requests for suspicious application payloads, not just TCP destination ports; “Web application firewall with HTTP-aware rules” addresses that precise condition. “Simple stateless IP allowlist alone” is not equivalent because address rules cannot inspect embedded SQL or script payload semantics.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Power continuity offers no web request content filtering. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. Here the decisive fact is an organization needs to inspect inbound HTTP requests for suspicious application payloads, not just TCP destination ports. “Web application firewall with HTTP-aware rules” matches that requirement because wAF inspection can evaluate request paths, parameters and headers at the application layer.

B:

Storage encryption does not inspect traffic reaching the web application. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. In the reported situation, an organization needs to inspect inbound HTTP requests for suspicious application payloads, not just TCP destination ports. The effective mechanism is “Web application firewall with HTTP-aware rules”: wAF inspection can evaluate request paths, parameters and headers at the application layer.

C:

Address rules cannot inspect embedded SQL or script payload semantics. The evidence is an organization needs to inspect inbound HTTP requests for suspicious application payloads, not just TCP destination ports. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. By contrast, “Web application firewall with HTTP-aware rules” operates on the specific concern: wAF inspection can evaluate request paths, parameters and headers at the application layer.

Question 198

An inline security appliance must actively block a known exploit signature before packets reach a vulnerable host. Which device mode is required?

  1. Intrusion prevention operating inline with blocking policy
  2. An offline backup integrity scanner
  3. Passive intrusion detection fed by a mirror port
  4. NetFlow collector processing records nightly

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An IPS in the data path can reject matching traffic instead of only reporting it. Prioritization should consider exploitable exposure, asset importance and remediation feasibility; a detector or workaround is not automatically equivalent to repairing vulnerable code. The case turns on an inline security appliance must actively block a known exploit signature before packets reach a vulnerable host; “Intrusion prevention operating inline with blocking policy” addresses that precise condition. “Passive intrusion detection fed by a mirror port” is not equivalent because a passive IDS observes copies of packets and cannot directly stop delivery.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Backup analysis is unrelated to in-flight exploit prevention. Backups and replicated copies mainly serve recovery and resilience; they do not inherently prevent an attacker from obtaining present access. In the reported situation, an inline security appliance must actively block a known exploit signature before packets reach a vulnerable host. The effective mechanism is “Intrusion prevention operating inline with blocking policy”: an IPS in the data path can reject matching traffic instead of only reporting it.

C:

A passive IDS observes copies of packets and cannot directly stop delivery. The evidence is an inline security appliance must actively block a known exploit signature before packets reach a vulnerable host. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. By contrast, “Intrusion prevention operating inline with blocking policy” operates on the specific concern: an IPS in the data path can reject matching traffic instead of only reporting it.

D:

Flow summaries enable analysis but cannot block a live packet. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. Here the decisive fact is an inline security appliance must actively block a known exploit signature before packets reach a vulnerable host. “Intrusion prevention operating inline with blocking policy” matches that requirement because an IPS in the data path can reject matching traffic instead of only reporting it.

Question 199

A security team wants to detect lateral scanning without risking packet drops in a fragile industrial link. Which monitoring architecture suits that constraint?

  1. Passive network IDS on a mirrored traffic feed
  2. An untested firewall migration during production
  3. Inline IPS with default block-all rules
  4. Public web reverse proxy on the control VLAN

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Out-of-band packet copies provide visibility without placing an enforcement device in the critical path. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. The case turns on a security team wants to detect lateral scanning without risking packet drops in a fragile industrial link; “Passive network IDS on a mirrored traffic feed” addresses that precise condition. “An untested firewall migration during production” is not equivalent because a migration would add operational risk instead of passive observation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A migration would add operational risk instead of passive observation. Network restrictions govern allowed flows and trust boundaries, not every application-layer input or business permission. In the reported situation, a security team wants to detect lateral scanning without risking packet drops in a fragile industrial link. The effective mechanism is “Passive network IDS on a mirrored traffic feed”: out-of-band packet copies provide visibility without placing an enforcement device in the critical path.

C:

A blocking device can introduce an outage in the fragile production connection. The evidence is a security team wants to detect lateral scanning without risking packet drops in a fragile industrial link. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. By contrast, “Passive network IDS on a mirrored traffic feed” operates on the specific concern: out-of-band packet copies provide visibility without placing an enforcement device in the critical path.

D:

A web proxy does not observe all protocol-specific industrial traffic. A tunnel or proxy changes the transport or inspection path; fine-grained identity and resource authorization still need explicit policy. Here the decisive fact is a security team wants to detect lateral scanning without risking packet drops in a fragile industrial link. “Passive network IDS on a mirrored traffic feed” matches that requirement because out-of-band packet copies provide visibility without placing an enforcement device in the critical path.

Question 200

A payment API needs to spread legitimate requests across healthy service instances and stop sending traffic to failed nodes. What infrastructure function provides this?

  1. A DNS record with one failed hardcoded server only
  2. Health-aware application load balancing
  3. A static blocklist of employee email addresses
  4. Local disk encryption on a frontend host

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A load balancer selects available backends using health signals and distribution policy. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. The stated evidence is a payment API needs to spread legitimate requests across healthy service instances and stop sending traffic to failed nodes. This distinction rules out “A DNS record with one failed hardcoded server only”: a single unmonitored endpoint does not adapt to backend failure. “Health-aware application load balancing” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A single unmonitored endpoint does not adapt to backend failure. DNS determines how names resolve to network destinations; it is not by itself a mechanism for validating a human identity or code provenance. Here the decisive fact is a payment API needs to spread legitimate requests across healthy service instances and stop sending traffic to failed nodes. “Health-aware application load balancing” matches that requirement because a load balancer selects available backends using health signals and distribution policy.

C:

Mail identity rules cannot distribute API requests among servers. The evidence is a payment API needs to spread legitimate requests across healthy service instances and stop sending traffic to failed nodes. Architecture controls differ by layer: application-aware filtering, network isolation, secure access and load distribution address different failure or abuse paths. By contrast, “Health-aware application load balancing” operates on the specific concern: a load balancer selects available backends using health signals and distribution policy.

D:

At-rest protection does not route requests around failed replicas. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. Here the decisive fact is a payment API needs to spread legitimate requests across healthy service instances and stop sending traffic to failed nodes. “Health-aware application load balancing” matches that requirement because a load balancer selects available backends using health signals and distribution policy.


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