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CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test 93

Question 920

A weekly report shows zero vulnerabilities on systems never scanned due to network segmentation. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Obtain vendor assurance and contractual evidence under approved access paths.
  2. Reconcile retirement records against actual network observations.
  3. Request rule effectiveness evidence and residual path review.
  4. Label them unassessed and plan authorized coverage before declaring compliance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

No scan data cannot be counted as security assurance. Correct unassessed segmented systems report.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Third-party assessments may use different proof methods from network scans. It could help include SaaS risk assurance without illegal scanning, but it would not correct unassessed segmented systems report.

B:

Supposed retirement is not proof an exposed device was removed. That is relevant to asset coverage and lifecycle reporting, not to correct unassessed segmented systems report.

C:

A claimed compensating control needs validated operation. It would verify legacy network isolation control, but it would not correct unassessed segmented systems report.

Question 921

A SOC wants mean time to detect but uses case-creation time instead of the first known malicious event. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Define MTTD from evidenced activity onset to confirmed detection and note coverage limits.
  2. Separate mean time to remediate from overall case administrative duration.
  3. Report response or containment time separately from administrative close time.
  4. Disclose population, severity distribution and exclusions for comparable metrics.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Start-point consistency is necessary for meaningful detection time. Calculate meaningful MTTD with event onset.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Remediation effectiveness should not be hidden by paperwork timing. It would report technical remediation time separately, but it would not calculate meaningful MTTD with event onset.

C:

Different milestones answer different operational performance questions. It could help distinguish containment latency from ticket closure, but it would not calculate meaningful MTTD with event onset.

D:

Selection bias can distort performance trends. That is relevant to detection and response timing kpis, not to calculate meaningful MTTD with event onset.

Question 922

A service outage is resolved but customers still need instructions for potentially compromised tokens. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Route the request to authorized spokespersons and limit sensitive technical disclosure.
  2. Provide approved user action guidance and the scope of affected credentials.
  3. Use uncertainty-accurate language reviewed by incident and legal authorities.
  4. Coordinate one approved factual statement and synchronized update cadence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Actionable communication supports customer risk reduction. Issue customer security actions after service recovery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Public transparency must be balanced with ongoing defensive security. It would manage media request for exploit details, but it would not issue customer security actions after service recovery.

C:

Premature absolutes can be false and damage trust. That is relevant to public relations and customer communication, not to issue customer security actions after service recovery.

D:

Consistent messages reduce confusion and unsupported promises. It would coordinate customer and PR incident statements, but it would not issue customer security actions after service recovery.

Question 923

Customers receive conflicting messages from support and public relations after a breach. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Use uncertainty-accurate language reviewed by incident and legal authorities.
  2. Provide approved user action guidance and the scope of affected credentials.
  3. Coordinate one approved factual statement and synchronized update cadence.
  4. Route the request to authorized spokespersons and limit sensitive technical disclosure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Consistent messages reduce confusion and unsupported promises. Coordinate customer and PR incident statements.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Premature absolutes can be false and damage trust. It could help avoid premature public assurance during incident, but it would not coordinate customer and PR incident statements.

B:

Actionable communication supports customer risk reduction. That is relevant to public relations and customer communication, not to coordinate customer and PR incident statements.

D:

Public transparency must be balanced with ongoing defensive security. It could help manage media request for exploit details, but it would not coordinate customer and PR incident statements.

Question 924

A regulator asks for the affected data categories but the technical team supplies malware hashes only. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Engage legal and privacy decision owners to assess applicable deadlines and evidence.
  2. Preserve scoped evidence under legal guidance before any disposition.
  3. Describe the visibility limit and use bounded estimates only when evidence supports them.
  4. Provide verified data classes, impacted populations and incident chronology through approved counsel.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Regulators need protected information impact, not just technical artifacts. Tailor regulatory breach response facts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Regulatory reporting requires jurisdiction-specific authorized judgment. That is relevant to regulatory and legal incident reporting, not to tailor regulatory breach response facts.

B:

Litigation or preservation duties can continue beyond technical containment. It would prevent deletion of legally held incident logs, but it would not tailor regulatory breach response facts.

C:

Missing telemetry prevents definitive no-access conclusions. It could help communicate unknown breach scope honestly, but it would not tailor regulatory breach response facts.

Question 925

An incident affects only one workstation but exposes privileged credentials used across the domain. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Evaluate potential domain-wide privilege reach, not just compromised-host count.
  2. Emphasize integrity impact and reconciliation requirements.
  3. Describe business service availability and fallback status distinctly.
  4. Report actual availability impact rather than assuming enterprise data breach.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Small observed host scope can carry broad credential impact. Assess credential blast radius in incident severity.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Data tampering can have severe financial consequences without exfiltration. It could help report significant integrity incident without theft, but it would not assess credential blast radius in incident severity.

C:

Impact reporting should differentiate affected and unaffected operations. That is relevant to incident severity versus impact reporting, not to assess credential blast radius in incident severity.

D:

Host count alone does not imply confidentiality loss. It would separate large host count from data breach, but it would not assess credential blast radius in incident severity.

Question 926

A new SIEM integration doubles alert counts but confirmed incidents remain unchanged. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Record authorized exercise context without deleting the detection evidence.
  2. Compare source duplicates, true-positive yield and new telemetry coverage.
  3. Normalize volume by monitored population and source fidelity before comparison.
  4. Measure false negatives and true-positive yield against known incidents.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

More alerts can reflect ingestion change rather than attacker activity. Interpret alert growth after SIEM integration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Legitimate test alerts can demonstrate successful control coverage. It could help classify red-team detection in SOC metrics, but it would not interpret alert growth after SIEM integration.

C:

Different observation scope makes raw counts misleading. It would normalize SOC alert volume across teams, but it would not interpret alert growth after SIEM integration.

D:

Low volume alone may indicate harmful detection suppression. It could help verify detection quality after alert suppression, but it would not interpret alert growth after SIEM integration.

Question 927

An executive requests a numerical attacker attribution confidence without a scoring method. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Report confirmed access and explicitly withhold unverified actor attribution.
  2. Explain attribution uncertainty and compare independent behavior indicators.
  3. Provide a qualitative supported confidence assessment with source and limitations.
  4. Describe confirmed execution stage and observed effects only.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Pseudoprecise confidence numbers are misleading without calibration. Report calibrated attribution uncertainty.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Impact evidence and attribution confidence are separate questions. That is relevant to confidence and threat actor communication, not to report calibrated attribution uncertainty.

B:

Shared cloud infrastructure does not uniquely link intrusions. It would communicate cloud shared-IP attribution limits, but it would not report calibrated attribution uncertainty.

D:

Incident labels should not outrun forensic proof. That is relevant to confidence and threat actor communication, not to report calibrated attribution uncertainty.

Question 928

An analyst claims response improvement by excluding complex severe incidents from its calculation. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Separate mean time to remediate from overall case administrative duration.
  2. Define MTTD from evidenced activity onset to confirmed detection and note coverage limits.
  3. Report response or containment time separately from administrative close time.
  4. Disclose population, severity distribution and exclusions for comparable metrics.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Selection bias can distort performance trends. Prevent cherry-picked incident response KPI.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Remediation effectiveness should not be hidden by paperwork timing. It would report technical remediation time separately, but it would not prevent cherry-picked incident response KPI.

B:

Start-point consistency is necessary for meaningful detection time. It could help calculate meaningful MTTD with event onset, but it would not prevent cherry-picked incident response KPI.

C:

Different milestones answer different operational performance questions. That is relevant to detection and response timing kpis, not to prevent cherry-picked incident response KPI.

Question 929

An incident's financial impact estimate changes after business interruption claims arrive. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Publish a time-stamped revision with sources and prior-estimate explanation.
  2. Separate confirmed infections from devices under investigation and state criteria.
  3. Translate detection status into risk, recovery and resource choices in plain language.
  4. Remove unsupported location attribution and describe confirmed infrastructure only.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Incident impact numbers often mature as accounting evidence becomes available. Revise executive incident loss estimate transparently.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Indicator matches alone cannot establish full endpoint compromise. That is relevant to evidence confidence in executive communication, not to revise executive incident loss estimate transparently.

C:

Senior decision makers need actionable context over tool terminology. It would make executive incident briefing accessible, but it would not revise executive incident loss estimate transparently.

D:

VPN and cloud egress geography are poor indicators of the person's location. It could help avoid false attacker geography claim, but it would not revise executive incident loss estimate transparently.

Question 930

The SOC suppresses 90% of alerts and declares detection maturity improved without missed-case review. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Compare source duplicates, true-positive yield and new telemetry coverage.
  2. Measure false negatives and true-positive yield against known incidents.
  3. Normalize volume by monitored population and source fidelity before comparison.
  4. Record authorized exercise context without deleting the detection evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Low volume alone may indicate harmful detection suppression. Verify detection quality after alert suppression.

Incorrect Answers

A:

More alerts can reflect ingestion change rather than attacker activity. That is relevant to alert volume and false positives, not to verify detection quality after alert suppression.

C:

Different observation scope makes raw counts misleading. It could help normalize SOC alert volume across teams, but it would not verify detection quality after alert suppression.

D:

Legitimate test alerts can demonstrate successful control coverage. That is relevant to alert volume and false positives, not to verify detection quality after alert suppression.


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