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CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test 90

Question 890

A critical new CVE is disclosed but the inventory lacks evidence whether the product is deployed. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Escalate changed urgency and communicate revised interim controls.
  2. Report an asset verification task and uncertainty before declaring enterprise exposure.
  3. Request provider or management evidence of affected-version closure.
  4. Present the security risk and operational impact for an authorized decision.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unknown inventory is not proof of either vulnerability or safety. Communicate CVE exposure uncertainty.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Confirmed active exploitation shifts likelihood and remediation priority. It could help update remediation after active exploitation, but it would not communicate CVE exposure uncertainty.

C:

Outsourced patching does not remove the need for assurance. It would validate managed cloud patch status, but it would not communicate CVE exposure uncertainty.

D:

Executives need both cyber and service consequences to choose containment. It could help communicate safe emergency shutdown trade-off, but it would not communicate CVE exposure uncertainty.

Question 891

A risk report claims an entire product group is safe because its average CVSS score dropped. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Report overdue exposure by criticality and remediation SLO alongside patch volume.
  2. Explain reachability, exploit maturity and business impact used to set priorities.
  3. Show the top residual risks and exposure distribution rather than relying on averages.
  4. Summarize critical business services, exposure trends and required risk decisions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Mean severity can hide individual high-consequence assets. Avoid vulnerability severity averages hiding outliers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Activity metrics alone can disguise urgent unmanaged risk. That is relevant to executive vulnerability reporting, not to avoid vulnerability severity averages hiding outliers.

B:

Transparent risk-based prioritization shows why scores alone do not dictate order. It would justify risk-based vulnerability remediation order, but it would not avoid vulnerability severity averages hiding outliers.

D:

Executive reporting should translate findings into business impact and accountability. That is relevant to executive vulnerability reporting, not to avoid vulnerability severity averages hiding outliers.

Question 892

A team closes a vulnerability ticket based on a vendor email stating 'fixed'. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Include expiry, monitoring and reassessment trigger in the acceptance record.
  2. Add accountable owner, due date and retest acceptance criteria for each critical item.
  3. Coordinate dependent controls and a single verified closure checkpoint.
  4. Require deployed-build and exposure verification before closure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Vendor release availability does not prove the target was updated. Validate vendor patch deployed before closure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risk acceptance remains controlled only when reassessment is defined. It would track accepted vulnerability future review, but it would not validate vendor patch deployed before closure.

B:

A finding becomes useful only with a trackable treatment action. It could help make vulnerability remediation action plan accountable, but it would not validate vendor patch deployed before closure.

C:

Multiteam vulnerabilities need integrated sequencing and evidence. That is relevant to remediation plan and owner follow-through, not to validate vendor patch deployed before closure.

Question 893

A vendor contract prohibits customer-installed updates for a specialized appliance. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Document contractual restriction and agree on vendor-managed remediation and interim controls.
  2. Report business constraint, temporary isolation, owner-approved plan and replacement timeline.
  3. Report live exposure and a short-term isolation plan despite future retirement.
  4. Present delayed patch impact and temporary safeguards for accountable risk approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Unilateral patching may violate support terms and operational assurances. Manage vendor-controlled patch inhibitor.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Legacy remediation reporting must balance patient service availability with risk. That is relevant to legacy system remediation inhibitors, not to manage vendor-controlled patch inhibitor.

C:

Future disposal does not remove present vulnerability. It would communicate interim retired-device risk, but it would not manage vendor-controlled patch inhibitor.

D:

Business process timing can justify controlled sequencing, not silent neglect. It could help report finance maintenance freeze risk, but it would not manage vendor-controlled patch inhibitor.

Question 894

A vulnerability SLO requires critical fixes in seven days but the team measures working days inconsistently. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Define tiered remediation targets based on risk and business constraints.
  2. Define clock start, calendar basis and verified close event uniformly.
  3. Measure verified full-scope mitigation rather than administrative ticket closure.
  4. Report residual risk and approved exception status transparently.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inconsistent timing rules invalidate SLA comparisons. Standardize vulnerability SLO clock.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Different impacts require proportionate response windows. That is relevant to risk and remediation slo reporting, not to standardize vulnerability SLO clock.

C:

Incomplete deployment cannot satisfy real remediation objectives. It could help reject false SLO success on standby exposure, but it would not standardize vulnerability SLO clock.

D:

Risk acceptance changes treatment, not the historical presence of exposure. That is relevant to risk and remediation slo reporting, not to standardize vulnerability SLO clock.

Question 895

A moderate vulnerability affects a customer checkout endpoint that handles payment tokens. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. State potential confidentiality impact and distinguish it from confirmed exfiltration.
  2. Report verified isolation and residual internal pathways instead of treating risk as zero.
  3. Highlight transaction and credential consequences in prioritization.
  4. Explain code reachability and mitigation confidence with source evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Business impact can raise urgency above the base technical score. Emphasize payment endpoint risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A vulnerability is not proof of a breach. It would separate potential theft from observed theft, but it would not emphasize payment endpoint risk.

B:

Environmental context limits but may not eliminate attack surface. It could help describe standby service residual exposure, but it would not emphasize payment endpoint risk.

D:

Realistic exploitation requires the vulnerable function to be reachable. It would report vulnerability reachability constraints, but it would not emphasize payment endpoint risk.

Question 896

An internal vulnerability export includes passwords in diagnostic evidence fields. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Include the rating methodology and relevant environmental adjustments.
  2. Identify coverage failure and request a retest; never report a true negative.
  3. Add affected components, exploit prerequisites and business risk interpretation.
  4. Redact secrets and limit report access while protecting original secured evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Reports can create new disclosure paths for captured credentials. Remove secrets from distributed scanner evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Readers need scoring definitions to interpret severity consistently. It could help disclose proprietary scanner severity basis, but it would not remove secrets from distributed scanner evidence.

B:

An inaccessible target has unknown vulnerability status. That is relevant to scanner-to-stakeholder communication integrity, not to remove secrets from distributed scanner evidence.

C:

Implementers need scope and managers need relevant consequences. It would improve incomplete vulnerability remediation notice, but it would not remove secrets from distributed scanner evidence.

Question 897

A dashboard counts closed tickets although half were never rescanned. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Use verified remediation outcomes and distinguish unvalidated closures.
  2. Report recurrence and root-cause process weakness separately from one-time closures.
  3. Separate scope expansion from actual risk deterioration in trend charts.
  4. Include assessed asset and test coverage with the count trend.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Closure status without technical proof is not confirmed risk reduction. Measure validated vulnerability closures.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Repeat defects indicate remediation-system problems. It would measure recurring vulnerabilities in builds, but it would not measure validated vulnerability closures.

C:

New asset coverage can increase counts without weaker controls. It could help interpret exposure trend after asset discovery, but it would not measure validated vulnerability closures.

D:

Reduced visibility can create misleading apparent improvement. That is relevant to vulnerability trend and recurrence metrics, not to measure validated vulnerability closures.

Question 898

A temporary allowlist reduces exploitation exposure but the approved risk owner has not accepted residual risk. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Update stakeholders on new treatment options and revised maintenance impact.
  2. Escalate a documented residual-risk decision and exception expiration.
  3. Label exploitation as unconfirmed and distinguish vendor advisory from local evidence.
  4. Present likelihood, business exposure, interim controls and explicit decision alternatives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Compensating controls are not automatically formal risk acceptance. Report residual risk after compensating control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

New fix availability changes the risk-treatment decision. It would refresh zero-day remediation communication, but it would not report residual risk after compensating control.

C:

Risk communication must separate vulnerability from incident. That is relevant to critical zero-day communication, not to report residual risk after compensating control.

D:

Risk decisions require impact and options, not an unqualified alarm. It would communicate zero-day decision options, but it would not report residual risk after compensating control.

Question 899

A manager wants to count patch installation as success even when hosts await reboot. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Group overdue fixes by business service and risk-based priority.
  2. Recommend time-bounded exception governance and periodic reauthorization.
  3. Include active-version verification as a separate completion metric.
  4. Report the change failure, rollback and revised test controls alongside risk reduction.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Installed patches may not protect until services restart. Measure active patch state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Backlog sorting should focus attention on meaningful exposure. It could help risk-rank vulnerability patch backlog, but it would not measure active patch state.

B:

Unlimited exceptions undermine enforceable remediation policy. That is relevant to patch program governance reporting, not to measure active patch state.

D:

Balanced reporting captures both security and availability outcomes. It could help report patch-induced business impact, but it would not measure active patch state.

Question 900

A report uses a proprietary scanner severity label without its risk scoring policy. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Add affected components, exploit prerequisites and business risk interpretation.
  2. Identify coverage failure and request a retest; never report a true negative.
  3. Redact secrets and limit report access while protecting original secured evidence.
  4. Include the rating methodology and relevant environmental adjustments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Readers need scoring definitions to interpret severity consistently. Disclose proprietary scanner severity basis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Implementers need scope and managers need relevant consequences. That is relevant to scanner-to-stakeholder communication integrity, not to disclose proprietary scanner severity basis.

B:

An inaccessible target has unknown vulnerability status. It would correct inaccurate scan pass report, but it would not disclose proprietary scanner severity basis.

C:

Reports can create new disclosure paths for captured credentials. It could help remove secrets from distributed scanner evidence, but it would not disclose proprietary scanner severity basis.


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