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CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test 73

Question 720

The outgoing archive was encrypted and analysts assume no sensitive data could have left. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Restrict the outbound route and preserve flow, account and file-access evidence.
  2. Report attempted transfer separately from confirmed completed export.
  3. Revoke the credential and inspect alternate data access routes.
  4. Investigate source files and process lineage despite encrypted transport or archive content.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Encryption does not make an unauthorized transfer harmless. Evaluate encrypted exfiltration artifact.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Active suspicious bulk transfer needs prompt containment and scope collection. That is relevant to network exfiltration response, not to evaluate encrypted exfiltration artifact.

B:

Denial telemetry cannot establish successful exfiltration. It would distinguish blocked transfer attempt from success, but it would not evaluate encrypted exfiltration artifact.

C:

Network containment alone does not eliminate stolen application credentials. It could help eradicate credential source of exfiltration, but it would not evaluate encrypted exfiltration artifact.

Question 721

A user clicked a lure and a new unauthorized browser process now has outbound C2 traffic. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Isolate the endpoint and preserve the EDR process and network timeline.
  2. Reset compromised credentials, revoke sessions and assess downstream access.
  3. Verify security baseline, patch state and clean authentication before reconnection.
  4. Quarantine related messages and search for recipients who opened the attachment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Confirmed suspicious execution plus C2 warrants containment and evidence preservation. Contain active phishing-driven host compromise.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Credential theft remains dangerous after a malicious webpage is closed. It could help respond to confirmed phished credentials, but it would not contain active phishing-driven host compromise.

C:

Recovery must ensure persistence and stolen credentials cannot reopen access. That is relevant to phishing-triggered endpoint incident, not to contain active phishing-driven host compromise.

D:

Removing the shared attack vector can prevent additional infections. It would contain phishing message spread, but it would not contain active phishing-driven host compromise.

Question 722

A responder takes photos of a console screen but omits exact time and system identity. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Implement a scoped approved legal hold on relevant log and mailbox sources.
  2. Record acquisition metadata and corroborate with machine logs where possible.
  3. Assign unique exhibit identifiers and maintain per-case custody records.
  4. Retain the original and generate a fresh verified analysis copy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Context is necessary to authenticate ephemeral screen evidence. Document console screenshot provenance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Preservation obligations take precedence over routine deletion schedules. It could help preserve incident evidence under legal hold, but it would not document console screenshot provenance.

C:

Ambiguous artifact identity can break evidence traceability. It would resolve duplicate forensic exhibit naming, but it would not document console screenshot provenance.

D:

Evidence working copies should not replace untouched originals. It could help recover from altered working forensic image, but it would not document console screenshot provenance.

Question 723

A privacy officer prohibits copying all employee mailboxes during a limited-scope investigation. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Confirm business authorization and project context before classifying malicious intent.
  2. Preserve endpoint and cloud audit evidence and involve authorized insider-risk and HR contacts.
  3. Collect only relevant custodians, time ranges and evidence under approved authority.
  4. Revoke applicable sessions and delegated access and check for subsequent cloud use.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Broad unrelated collection undermines proportionate incident handling. Limit insider investigation evidence scope.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Legitimate data access can resemble exfiltration without policy context. That is relevant to insider data theft investigation, not to limit insider investigation evidence scope.

B:

Insider investigation requires provenance and privacy-aware governance. It would investigate suspected departing employee exfiltration, but it would not limit insider investigation evidence scope.

D:

Physical device control alone cannot stop already-issued cloud credentials. That is relevant to insider data theft investigation, not to limit insider investigation evidence scope.

Question 724

An access key appears in a public source repository and cloud logs show unexpected data reads. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Coordinate an approved replacement identity and secret rotation before removing emergency controls.
  2. Distinguish enumeration from successful retrieval using API outcomes and byte counts.
  3. Restrict replacement service policy and monitor for similar exposure in the build process.
  4. Disable the leaked key and preserve cloud audit evidence of its use.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Public credential disclosure plus misuse warrants prompt containment. Contain exposed cloud access key.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Business continuity must be protected without keeping stolen credentials active. It would rotate compromised integration secret safely, but it would not contain exposed cloud access key.

B:

Evidence does not justify claiming data exfiltration when reads failed. It could help scope cloud key misuse based on API results, but it would not contain exposed cloud access key.

C:

Correcting entitlement and secret handling reduces repeat compromise likelihood. That is relevant to cloud access-key exposure, not to contain exposed cloud access key.

Question 725

A workstation queries high-entropy subdomains and sends regular TXT answers to one external zone. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Isolate suspicious egress and preserve DNS and process telemetry.
  2. Hunt for related process behavior and additional generated destinations.
  3. Apply scoped domain controls and monitor required legitimate TXT use.
  4. Correlate resolver client logs with endpoint telemetry before naming source machines.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

DNS tunneling can carry data or commands via normal resolver paths. Contain suspected DNS tunneling.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Blocking one domain may not stop an adaptive rendezvous mechanism. That is relevant to malicious dns command-and-control, not to contain suspected DNS tunneling.

C:

Broad DNS record-type bans can break validation and service discovery. It would limit DNS-tunnel containment scope, but it would not contain suspected DNS tunneling.

D:

Upstream IPs may identify a resolver rather than an infected endpoint. It could help attribute DNS tunneling to originating host, but it would not contain suspected DNS tunneling.

Question 726

A public API receives a large flood that exhausts rate limits during customer checkout. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Compare service availability, malicious request rates and customer success metrics.
  2. Activate approved edge rate limiting or upstream mitigation with service owners.
  3. Evaluate legitimate customer impact and use traffic behavior controls instead.
  4. Restrict origin access to trusted edge infrastructure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Distributed attack traffic should be absorbed before exhausting application resources. Mitigate active API DDoS.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery decisions need actual service outcome evidence. That is relevant to ddos response coordination, not to mitigate active API DDoS.

C:

Broad geographic blocking can cause unnecessary disruption. It could help avoid overbroad DDoS geographic containment, but it would not mitigate active API DDoS.

D:

Attackers can bypass CDN protection when origins remain directly exposed. That is relevant to ddos response coordination, not to mitigate active API DDoS.

Question 727

An incident worsens across several regions but no cross-team owner is assigned. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Escalate to designated legal and communications authorities before external notices.
  2. Assign incident command and coordinate disruptive actions with service owners.
  3. Declare appropriate coordinated response structure with accountable roles and handoffs.
  4. Apply the defined incident severity and evidence criteria before major escalation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Clear leadership prevents duplicated or missed containment during expansion. Activate coordinated incident management for multi-region event.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Notification duties require accountable governance and accurate impact assessment. It would route regulated incident disclosure to authorized leads, but it would not activate coordinated incident management for multi-region event.

B:

Uncoordinated containment may amplify operational impact. It could help coordinate incident response command, but it would not activate coordinated incident management for multi-region event.

D:

Consistent severity prevents overwhelming emergency response with unconfirmed exposure. It would classify incident severity proportionately, but it would not activate coordinated incident management for multi-region event.

Question 728

A remote alert claims privilege escalation based only on one failed sudo attempt. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Rotate authorized keys and check trust relationships across reachable systems.
  2. Restrict the affected host and inspect root-level changes before remediation.
  3. Preserve the modification and remove the grant under verified administrative access.
  4. Validate successful privilege change evidence before classifying a root compromise.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Denied elevation attempts are not proof of elevated execution. Distinguish failed sudo attempt from root takeover.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared privileged credentials can maintain external lateral access. It could help eradicate residual root SSH trust, but it would not distinguish failed sudo attempt from root takeover.

B:

Root access invalidates trust in local binaries and audit data. That is relevant to privilege escalation and root access, not to distinguish failed sudo attempt from root takeover.

C:

Authorization configuration tampering can create persistent elevated privilege. It would remove malicious sudoers permission, but it would not distinguish failed sudo attempt from root takeover.

Question 729

A recovered admin account still has unauthorized OAuth grants created during intrusion. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Revoke malicious grants and review delegated service access.
  2. Separate authorized historical actions from the compromise window using evidence.
  3. Revoke or expire sessions and assess provider token invalidation controls.
  4. Disable or restrict the account session and preserve associated sign-in and command logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Application consent can preserve attacker reach beyond user password remediation. Eradicate persistent OAuth delegation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Incident scope should not attribute all prior activity to the intruder. It would bound privileged account compromise timeline, but it would not eradicate persistent OAuth delegation.

C:

Password rotation does not necessarily terminate already-issued access tokens. It could help invalidate stolen cloud sessions, but it would not eradicate persistent OAuth delegation.

D:

Active privileged misuse can rapidly expand impact. That is relevant to privileged identity takeover, not to eradicate persistent OAuth delegation.

Question 730

Object listing records show public requests but no successful content reads. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Engage legal and privacy teams using precise affected object and access evidence.
  2. Report confirmed exposure separately from unproven data exfiltration.
  3. Revoke public access and preserve policy history and access logs.
  4. Revoke applicable signed links and verify effective object access restrictions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Listing alone does not prove records were downloaded. Distinguish cloud listing from data theft.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Confirmed regulated data access may trigger notification obligations. It would escalate confirmed exposed regulated cloud data, but it would not distinguish cloud listing from data theft.

C:

Misconfigured permissions require prompt containment plus exposure evidence. That is relevant to cloud object exposure incident, not to distinguish cloud listing from data theft.

D:

Fixing bucket ACLs may not invalidate every preissued access mechanism. It would close residual storage signed URL exposure, but it would not distinguish cloud listing from data theft.


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